O
the Bible is already self-similar and in a sense fractal in its content and formulation. if you describe the scripture as a graph, with ever verse a node, it is a connected graph -- there exists a path between every vertex, where edges are described by theological & typological congruencies. every single verse is connected to every other verse in some way, whether it's direct or indirect ((i.e. you take a path along edges that passes through some number of other vertices)). it repeats motifs and coherently, ubiquitously, repeats certain truths. it all testifies of Christ, His person and work.
so just because you find a verse that says "the LORD is God" and you go through some kind of calculation & search that winds up connecting another verse in some way, and that verse also implies in a sense that "the LORD is God" that is in no way at all any kind of verification of your calculation process. keep multiplying random numbers by 2 and it's not really any surprise that the answer you get is always an even number. but when you understand that all even numbers are multiples of 2, that fact is useful. it's not useful to come up with a way to pick a blade of grass out a field and say 'this piece of grass is green!' -- they are all green.
mathematics requires rigor and justification. why are we multiplying chapters and verses?
and mathematics is not always about numbers. it is fundamentally not numeric but abstract, in that something like the integers or a subset of the integers is only one of an infinite number of spaces that an algebraic topology can describe. if you really want to approach the Bible with an integer-based method of interpretation, we ought to first establish a topology of equivalence relations that we can fully justify in the abstract before ever applying any kind of numerical calculation. without that, all this is completely arbitrary.
IOW
you found 375 somewhere and attached significance to it relative to Psalm 127:3
this is still completely arbitrary unless you can show somehow that relationship is unique to this verse.
this is still completely arbitrary unless you can show that the same relationship exists with Psalm 15:25 and Psalm 75:5 and is also unique to this equivalence set under the numerical congruency.
this is still completely arbitrary if you can't demonstrate that it is true for all verses in Psalms and their resultants, or prove that it must be so for whatever subset that it is, and show why it is so for either every verse in the whole book or why it is necessarily only the case for whatever subset it is actually so for.
i hope some of this makes sense.
i'm probably sounding very critical; don't take this the wrong way, please. as i said, i'm a mathematician - not just 'i do some math as part of my job' -- so i am scrutinizing this stuff with the goal of either fully establishing a legitimate algorithmic approach here or definitively discarding a meaningless pseudo-relationship.
so just because you find a verse that says "the LORD is God" and you go through some kind of calculation & search that winds up connecting another verse in some way, and that verse also implies in a sense that "the LORD is God" that is in no way at all any kind of verification of your calculation process. keep multiplying random numbers by 2 and it's not really any surprise that the answer you get is always an even number. but when you understand that all even numbers are multiples of 2, that fact is useful. it's not useful to come up with a way to pick a blade of grass out a field and say 'this piece of grass is green!' -- they are all green.
mathematics requires rigor and justification. why are we multiplying chapters and verses?
and mathematics is not always about numbers. it is fundamentally not numeric but abstract, in that something like the integers or a subset of the integers is only one of an infinite number of spaces that an algebraic topology can describe. if you really want to approach the Bible with an integer-based method of interpretation, we ought to first establish a topology of equivalence relations that we can fully justify in the abstract before ever applying any kind of numerical calculation. without that, all this is completely arbitrary.
IOW
you found 375 somewhere and attached significance to it relative to Psalm 127:3
this is still completely arbitrary unless you can show somehow that relationship is unique to this verse.
this is still completely arbitrary unless you can show that the same relationship exists with Psalm 15:25 and Psalm 75:5 and is also unique to this equivalence set under the numerical congruency.
this is still completely arbitrary if you can't demonstrate that it is true for all verses in Psalms and their resultants, or prove that it must be so for whatever subset that it is, and show why it is so for either every verse in the whole book or why it is necessarily only the case for whatever subset it is actually so for.
i hope some of this makes sense.
i'm probably sounding very critical; don't take this the wrong way, please. as i said, i'm a mathematician - not just 'i do some math as part of my job' -- so i am scrutinizing this stuff with the goal of either fully establishing a legitimate algorithmic approach here or definitively discarding a meaningless pseudo-relationship.
No, I like your viewpoint very much.
And I agree that something important is repeated throughout the entire Bible, even certain phrases can be found this way like a pattern.
But the reason I am intrigued by this like I am, is due to the fact most contemporaries conclude Psalms to be concentric to Praise and Worship. Albeit, throughout the years of Biblical study, I have found connections from Psalms to the first creation, the old world, Yeshua dying upon the Cross, God expanding His frustration with sacrifice and burnt offerings, and much more. But I never really found connections to the end times specifically with Psalms. And this new mathematical method has pointed to several connections pertaining the end times, that I once did not see the connection before. The way David wrote it, plus how Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Christ (worded/not wrote), Paul, and John wrote their contemporaries, are not word for word. So it was never obvious what David was pointing at. But when I did the method and read the matched verse, I clearly could see how both verses meant same thing without wording it the same.