Speaking in tongues
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Another sign gift?
God is not a man never was never could be. Seeing him face to face is by the knowledge he brings through the word of God, prophecy. The one time demonstration of the invisible working of Jesus is over and even though some did know him in that way when he left we are to know him no more . We walk by faith as seeing him who has no form, not like Thomas the faithless.
Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.2 Corinthians 5;16
God is not a man never was never could be. Seeing him face to face is by the knowledge he brings through the word of God, prophecy. The one time demonstration of the invisible working of Jesus is over and even though some did know him in that way when he left we are to know him no more . We walk by faith as seeing him who has no form, not like Thomas the faithless.
Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.2 Corinthians 5;16
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And you have no idea as to what a church is … a church is merely a fellowship of individuals.
God gives gifts to individuals within a church for the edification and working of the spiritual life of a church body.
That is why the nine gifts of the Holy Spirit are alive and well and fully operational in a Bible obedient Pentecostal church.
God gives gifts to individuals within a church for the edification and working of the spiritual life of a church body.
That is why the nine gifts of the Holy Spirit are alive and well and fully operational in a Bible obedient Pentecostal church.
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No Bible verse needed to back up your ideas? No idea or I do not have your personal experience as a idea?
Therefore because I am not experienced and have not made a noise by speaking in the air and that's why I have no idea what the bible teaches or I have not been slain in the spirit when another person puts their hand on me and I have no falling back experience or have not drank poison and not died?
Is that the test that determines a person has a understanding of the scriptures?
Jesus as the Son of man was a man as us as the Son of God (the Holy Spirit) living in a corrupted body of death . When he left, he left clear instructions (2 Corinthians 5:16) that even though some did know him after the flesh as a one time demonstration of the invisible working of God which in respect to that flesh he says did not profits in John 6. we know him no more forever more .The one time demonstration is over. The veil is rent indicating he has come.
God is not a man as us and neither is there any fleshly mediator set between our invisible God and mankind.
For he is not a man, as I am, that I should answer him, and we should come together in judgment. Neither is there any daysman betwixt us, that might lay his hand upon us both Job 9:32-33
Christ as the Son of God, the Holy Spirit of God remains supernatural with out nature a beginning. The moment God would try and create another God he would cease being God.
Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the "Son of God"; abideth a priest continually .Hebrews 7:3
Therefore because I am not experienced and have not made a noise by speaking in the air and that's why I have no idea what the bible teaches or I have not been slain in the spirit when another person puts their hand on me and I have no falling back experience or have not drank poison and not died?
Is that the test that determines a person has a understanding of the scriptures?
Jesus as the Son of man was a man as us as the Son of God (the Holy Spirit) living in a corrupted body of death . When he left, he left clear instructions (2 Corinthians 5:16) that even though some did know him after the flesh as a one time demonstration of the invisible working of God which in respect to that flesh he says did not profits in John 6. we know him no more forever more .The one time demonstration is over. The veil is rent indicating he has come.
God is not a man as us and neither is there any fleshly mediator set between our invisible God and mankind.
For he is not a man, as I am, that I should answer him, and we should come together in judgment. Neither is there any daysman betwixt us, that might lay his hand upon us both Job 9:32-33
Christ as the Son of God, the Holy Spirit of God remains supernatural with out nature a beginning. The moment God would try and create another God he would cease being God.
Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the "Son of God"; abideth a priest continually .Hebrews 7:3
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1 Corinthians 13
8 Love never ends. As for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part, 10 but when the perfect comes, the partial will pass away. 11 When I was a child, I spoke like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. When I became a man, I gave up childish ways. 12 For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I have been fully known.
13 So now faith, hope, and love abide, these three; but the greatest of these is love.
Faith, hope and love abide (remain). Prophecies ... they will pass away. Tongues ... they will cease. Knowledge too will pass away. If none of this occurs until Christ returns, somebody tell me why both faith and hope remain a constant when both have been realized with us being in His very presence ? Will we still need to hope ? Faith is the substance of things hoped for ... the evidence of things not seen. In His presence, we surely see him, don't we ? Love is greatest. It never ceases.
8 Love never ends. As for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part, 10 but when the perfect comes, the partial will pass away. 11 When I was a child, I spoke like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. When I became a man, I gave up childish ways. 12 For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I have been fully known.
13 So now faith, hope, and love abide, these three; but the greatest of these is love.
Faith, hope and love abide (remain). Prophecies ... they will pass away. Tongues ... they will cease. Knowledge too will pass away. If none of this occurs until Christ returns, somebody tell me why both faith and hope remain a constant when both have been realized with us being in His very presence ? Will we still need to hope ? Faith is the substance of things hoped for ... the evidence of things not seen. In His presence, we surely see him, don't we ? Love is greatest. It never ceases.
The Bible says that that which is in part will be done away. You want them to be done away with already. You are the one 'interpreting away' what the Bible says with his theory.
If you look at the book of Revelation, as a dispensationalist, you must see the prophesying and miracles of the two witnesses as future events. If prophecy has ceased (and God working miracles through people if you hold to that idea-- a cessationist contrivance that has not so much as a misinterpreted proof text behind it), then how do you get the two witnesses prophesying and doing miracles like shutting up the heavens in the end times? Do you revive the gift of prophecy (and miracles if you think it ceased) for another dispensation? That's a very confused way of dealing with scripture, and inconsistent. If the two witnesses prophesy, then it makes no sense to say prophecy will cease before then. And there is no scripture about the working of miracles ceasing ever. It's up to God if He wants to cause that to cease because the saints are transformed if it is no longer necessary, but the Bible teaches nothing about it.
We should interpret Paul's writings about 'that which is in part shall be done away' consistent with what Paul writes in the rest of the book. I Corinthians 1:7 says, 'So that ye come behind in no spiritual gift, waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.' It makes no sense to argue that Paul thought the very gifts that he was about to write about would cease before the coming of this Lord in like of this verse. We should therefore not teach that these gifts have ceased. Intepreting 'that which is perfect' in this context to refer to the completed canon is a classic case of eisegesis. There is nothing in the passage to support the idea. In fact, there is scripture that argues against it.
The theory does not work out historically, either, since there is evidence that prophecy continued on and was accepted by the church as a legitimate gift in the second century, the third century, and there is evidence for it at later times, especially in the Ante-Nicene time period.
No, I am not just trying to be cute. You just lack some understanding as to what all constitutes charismata. There are people who are gifted to preach the Gospel effectly. So I do not agree that no one gets saved through gifts. God uses other things to help bring people to Christ. Cornelius saw an angel who directed him to call for Peter. He got saved through hearing and believing the word, but there were other circumstances that led him to hear the message and be open to it. In his case, an angel appeared to him. In the case of some of the Samaritans, seeing Philip perform signs among them encouraged them to pay careful attention to the Gospel. In Sergius Paulus' case, he believed the word he heard preached, but he believed it after he saw Paul declare Elymas blind and it came to pass. There are plenty of people who hear the word and believe without seeing a miracle. But God may use circumstances to open their hearts up. They might witness a Christian's prayer being answered or other things that do not have much to do with the Christians in their lives.
People get saved by grace through faith, and faith comes by hearing, and hearing through the word of God. But that does not mean that spiritual gifts or other things the Lord has happen to them does not help them to come to faith.
To say that spiritual gifts can have nothing to do with individuals being saved is not Biblical.
You are on the point that the gospel is preached not revealed in miracles. Even if you arrive there by the wrong reason.
For the cause of Christ
Roger[/QUOTE]
If you look at the book of Revelation, as a dispensationalist, you must see the prophesying and miracles of the two witnesses as future events. If prophecy has ceased (and God working miracles through people if you hold to that idea-- a cessationist contrivance that has not so much as a misinterpreted proof text behind it), then how do you get the two witnesses prophesying and doing miracles like shutting up the heavens in the end times? Do you revive the gift of prophecy (and miracles if you think it ceased) for another dispensation? That's a very confused way of dealing with scripture, and inconsistent. If the two witnesses prophesy, then it makes no sense to say prophecy will cease before then. And there is no scripture about the working of miracles ceasing ever. It's up to God if He wants to cause that to cease because the saints are transformed if it is no longer necessary, but the Bible teaches nothing about it.
We should interpret Paul's writings about 'that which is in part shall be done away' consistent with what Paul writes in the rest of the book. I Corinthians 1:7 says, 'So that ye come behind in no spiritual gift, waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.' It makes no sense to argue that Paul thought the very gifts that he was about to write about would cease before the coming of this Lord in like of this verse. We should therefore not teach that these gifts have ceased. Intepreting 'that which is perfect' in this context to refer to the completed canon is a classic case of eisegesis. There is nothing in the passage to support the idea. In fact, there is scripture that argues against it.
The theory does not work out historically, either, since there is evidence that prophecy continued on and was accepted by the church as a legitimate gift in the second century, the third century, and there is evidence for it at later times, especially in the Ante-Nicene time period.
No, I am not just trying to be cute. You just lack some understanding as to what all constitutes charismata. There are people who are gifted to preach the Gospel effectly. So I do not agree that no one gets saved through gifts. God uses other things to help bring people to Christ. Cornelius saw an angel who directed him to call for Peter. He got saved through hearing and believing the word, but there were other circumstances that led him to hear the message and be open to it. In his case, an angel appeared to him. In the case of some of the Samaritans, seeing Philip perform signs among them encouraged them to pay careful attention to the Gospel. In Sergius Paulus' case, he believed the word he heard preached, but he believed it after he saw Paul declare Elymas blind and it came to pass. There are plenty of people who hear the word and believe without seeing a miracle. But God may use circumstances to open their hearts up. They might witness a Christian's prayer being answered or other things that do not have much to do with the Christians in their lives.
People get saved by grace through faith, and faith comes by hearing, and hearing through the word of God. But that does not mean that spiritual gifts or other things the Lord has happen to them does not help them to come to faith.
To say that spiritual gifts can have nothing to do with individuals being saved is not Biblical.
You are on the point that the gospel is preached not revealed in miracles. Even if you arrive there by the wrong reason.
For the cause of Christ
Roger[/QUOTE]
Let's pay close attention to what you are saying. Are you saying Isaiah is right, and Paul is right to quote Isaiah, but that Paul is wrong in I Corinthians 12 when he writes:
7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to each one for the profit of all: 8 for to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, to another the word of knowledge through the same Spirit, 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healings by the same Spirit, 10 to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another discerning of spirits, to another different kinds of tongues, to another the interpretation of tongues. 11 But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually as He wills.
[/quote](NKJV)
So, are you saying the Bible is wrong to say that the manifestation of the Spirit of 'different kinds of tongues' is not given 'for the profit of all'?
What about this verse?
(NKJV)
Are you saying Paul was wrote to write that the church may receive edification through the interpretation of tongues?
The scriptures you quote are good. Your hermeneutics are different from Paul's. You often post statements that contradict his teachings in I Corinthians 14, which quotes from Isaiah 28.
7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to each one for the profit of all: 8 for to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, to another the word of knowledge through the same Spirit, 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healings by the same Spirit, 10 to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another discerning of spirits, to another different kinds of tongues, to another the interpretation of tongues. 11 But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually as He wills.
[/quote](NKJV)
So, are you saying the Bible is wrong to say that the manifestation of the Spirit of 'different kinds of tongues' is not given 'for the profit of all'?
What about this verse?
(NKJV)
Are you saying Paul was wrote to write that the church may receive edification through the interpretation of tongues?
The scriptures you quote are good. Your hermeneutics are different from Paul's. You often post statements that contradict his teachings in I Corinthians 14, which quotes from Isaiah 28.
Look at these verses I Corinthians 13
11 When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known. (NKJV)
This is about Paul personally. Before the perfect comes, he was like a child in his thinking and understanding. After the perfect comes, he wil be like a man in his knowledge and understanding. Notice 'we see in a mirror'. When the prefect comes, "I shall know just as I also am known.'
Can you really say that your speech, knowledge, and understanding, as a man who has the completed Bible is like an adult's in comparison to the ones who wrote the scriptures you read? By reading their childish understanding, you become a man in your understanding? Isn't that a foolish way of reading this passage? Paul is not focusing on the Bible hear, calling it childish understanding. Rather, he is speaking of his own understanding. And when the rapture/resurrection event occurs, we will be transformed. We shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is. This will change the way we speak, think, and understand.
That fits with what is described in the passage. It is also consistent with the fact that Paul leads up to a discussion of the resurrection and the transformation of them that shall 'not all sleep' a couple of chapters later, and I Corinthians 1:7 'So that ye come behind in no spiritual gift, waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.'
Many pages back, you acknowledged that the prophecies from God the Old Testament does not include in the Bible-- prophecies of Samuel between that one as a child and the one when he was an old man, Saul's prophecy, the prophecies of the prophets he met from Shiloh, prophecies of the prophets who were killed in the time of Jezebel, etc-- did not have to be added to the Bible.
You acknowledged, therefore, that a prophecy could be from God without it belong in the Bible. You acknowledged that these were real prophecies that were not in the Bible.
But yet you continue with this line of argument that if someone prophecies something that is not in scripture, he is adding to scripture.
Do you think of the Bible as 'that which is in part' which 'shall be done away', then? We should expect prophecy and knowledge to continue until we are resurrected, then? Are you changing your stance on the issue as you write?
11 When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known. (NKJV)
This is about Paul personally. Before the perfect comes, he was like a child in his thinking and understanding. After the perfect comes, he wil be like a man in his knowledge and understanding. Notice 'we see in a mirror'. When the prefect comes, "I shall know just as I also am known.'
Can you really say that your speech, knowledge, and understanding, as a man who has the completed Bible is like an adult's in comparison to the ones who wrote the scriptures you read? By reading their childish understanding, you become a man in your understanding? Isn't that a foolish way of reading this passage? Paul is not focusing on the Bible hear, calling it childish understanding. Rather, he is speaking of his own understanding. And when the rapture/resurrection event occurs, we will be transformed. We shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is. This will change the way we speak, think, and understand.
That fits with what is described in the passage. It is also consistent with the fact that Paul leads up to a discussion of the resurrection and the transformation of them that shall 'not all sleep' a couple of chapters later, and I Corinthians 1:7 'So that ye come behind in no spiritual gift, waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.'
Many pages back, you acknowledged that the prophecies from God the Old Testament does not include in the Bible-- prophecies of Samuel between that one as a child and the one when he was an old man, Saul's prophecy, the prophecies of the prophets he met from Shiloh, prophecies of the prophets who were killed in the time of Jezebel, etc-- did not have to be added to the Bible.
You acknowledged, therefore, that a prophecy could be from God without it belong in the Bible. You acknowledged that these were real prophecies that were not in the Bible.
But yet you continue with this line of argument that if someone prophecies something that is not in scripture, he is adding to scripture.
Do you think of the Bible as 'that which is in part' which 'shall be done away', then? We should expect prophecy and knowledge to continue until we are resurrected, then? Are you changing your stance on the issue as you write?
Oh, I think God has a form. We have never been given a description of our Heavenly Father, but we do have one of the glorified Christ.
Rev 1:13-16 "And in the midst of the seven candlesticks one like unto the Son of man, clothed with a garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a golden girdle. His head and his hairs were white like wool, as white as snow; and his eyes were as a flame of fire; and his feet like unto fine brass, as if they burned in a furnace; and his voice as the sound of many waters. And he had in his right hand seven stars: and out of his mouth went a sharp twoedged sword: and his countenance was as the sun shineth in his strength."
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O
Most people who believe the gift of Tongues has ceased uses this verse...
- 1 Corinthians 13:
8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.
Since we know the above is the translation version, which typically is skewed and at times wrong. We also know for a fact that Paul wrote Corinthians in Greek. So, let's see specifically what the proper Greek translation claims what Paul actually said in 1 Corinthians 13:8...
This is from my own Greek Bible, and it shows this verse in a different view!!
1 Corinthians 13:
8 Love is never lapsing: yet, whether prophecies, they will be discarded, or languages, they will cease, or knowledge, it will be discarded."
The proper Greek translation claims the word TONGUES, in this verse from Paul, actually is referring to our human languages that we speak, not the gift of Tongues. Any time I hear a preacher make the claim from this verse in respect to the Holy Spirit, I run as fast as I can and show him/her the truth, just to see the STUPID LOOK they deserve to be wearing for spreading an OUTRIGHT LIE!!
O
And if you really want to know when these gifts actually end?
1 Corinthians 13:
8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there beknowledge, it shall vanish away.
9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
This is speaking when Christ returns (verse 10 which is PERFECT is come), this is when this will end, not when the Book of Revelation's was written or added to the Canon.
At the time of this writing, Christ had already ascended and the Holy Ghost had already arrived. So what would be the only thing left that is PERFECT still to come? The Second Coming of Christ. Since that has not yet happened, the gifts of the Holy Spirit are still 100% active and alive today!!
1 Corinthians 13:
8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there beknowledge, it shall vanish away.
9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.
This is speaking when Christ returns (verse 10 which is PERFECT is come), this is when this will end, not when the Book of Revelation's was written or added to the Canon.
At the time of this writing, Christ had already ascended and the Holy Ghost had already arrived. So what would be the only thing left that is PERFECT still to come? The Second Coming of Christ. Since that has not yet happened, the gifts of the Holy Spirit are still 100% active and alive today!!
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I offer my private interpretation as personal opinion as do you.
How would you define the foundation of tongues as the law spoken of in 1 Corinthians 14:21-22? This is seeing they both speak of the "yet for all that will they not hear me", saith the Lord.
For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.But the "word of the Lord" was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken. Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem. Isaiah 28'11-42
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto "this people"; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that" believe not": but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Corithians 14:21-22
How would you define the foundation of tongues as the law spoken of in 1 Corinthians 14:21-22? This is seeing they both speak of the "yet for all that will they not hear me", saith the Lord.
For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.But the "word of the Lord" was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken. Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem. Isaiah 28'11-42
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto "this people"; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that" believe not": but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Corithians 14:21-22
What truth do you run to show them stupid ones?
Tongues is prophecy, the gift of God spoken in other languages other than Hebrew . Look to the foundation of the doctrine of tongues. Isaiah 28
The fulfilment is in Acts 2 .The law reintroduced and defined as confirming God mocking the jews stammering lips as a sign against them who refuse to hear the word of God, prophecy found in 1 Corinthians 14:21-22
For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear. But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken. Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.Isaiah 28
Tongues is prophecy, the gift of God spoken in other languages other than Hebrew . Look to the foundation of the doctrine of tongues. Isaiah 28
The fulfilment is in Acts 2 .The law reintroduced and defined as confirming God mocking the jews stammering lips as a sign against them who refuse to hear the word of God, prophecy found in 1 Corinthians 14:21-22
For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear. But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken. Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.Isaiah 28
Interjecting medical terms and or opinions to explain the supernatural power of the Holy Spirit through HIS gifts found in 1cor 12 to 14 chapters; is not going to be contextual. The “linguistic sense” is not a biblical one. That is a humanistic approach to Biblical interpretation. Which is extreme error for a Christian to use when interpreting the word of God. " free vocalization" is too a term coined by those who have progressed from outright calling it of the devil, because after studying the gift have found it to have benefit and not fake. So now they have created “free vocalization” because they cannot answer the context of the following:
The humanistic doctrine of Biblical explanation:
The terms are very much unbiblical yet surprisingly not many have called them on it.
Yet they try to hide with Greek strong concordance words like “glossolalia” yet this term is nothing unless you place it in the context where it is used.
charisma + pneumatikos come from Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit gives them. As 1cor 12:3-4 states. You cannot take what is from the Holy Spirit as a gift, which is recorded in 1cor chapter 12, and use humanistic terms to explain the Supernatural. That is error.
The gifts as stated in 1cor 12 from verses 4 to 7 we see that giving only one operation to the “Gifts of the Holy Spirit like tongues and calling it “ glossolalia from one Greek word in the languages, is not proper Biblical interpretation. WHY? Because you had to remove what was said in 1cor 12: 4-7 in context to what the gifts do and they have more than one application.
Read:
1cor 12:4-7 you will see: diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.
there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.
the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.
As you read on in 1cor 12 everything that is given is by the Holy Spirit verse 8-11 says :
For to one is given by the Spirit(S) the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;
Glōssa is the word for tongues here, which the Holy Spirit helps with an interpretation. Why not
a translation? Because it is speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit This is not something human are able to understand intellectually they are spiritual “charismata and pneumatikos not carnal. So one cannot explain the Gifts of the Holy Spirit using humanistic terms.
They do not seek the authorial intent, they do not apply proper context, and they do not use the word of God to explain the word of God. Humanistic biblical interpretation creates terms to explain away the work of God.
“Free vocalization”, modern tongues, linguistic studies, all come from Secular humanistic approach to biblical understanding
- Gifts of The Holy Spirit
- Why is only “free vocalization” the only explanation for the gift of tongues? yet they have none for the other gifts.
- If the gifts have stopped, the topic is over, why waste time on what is not real.
The humanistic doctrine of Biblical explanation:
The terms are very much unbiblical yet surprisingly not many have called them on it.
Yet they try to hide with Greek strong concordance words like “glossolalia” yet this term is nothing unless you place it in the context where it is used.
charisma + pneumatikos come from Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit gives them. As 1cor 12:3-4 states. You cannot take what is from the Holy Spirit as a gift, which is recorded in 1cor chapter 12, and use humanistic terms to explain the Supernatural. That is error.
The gifts as stated in 1cor 12 from verses 4 to 7 we see that giving only one operation to the “Gifts of the Holy Spirit like tongues and calling it “ glossolalia from one Greek word in the languages, is not proper Biblical interpretation. WHY? Because you had to remove what was said in 1cor 12: 4-7 in context to what the gifts do and they have more than one application.
Read:
1cor 12:4-7 you will see: diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.
there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.
the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.
As you read on in 1cor 12 everything that is given is by the Holy Spirit verse 8-11 says :
For to one is given by the Spirit(S) the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;
Glōssa is the word for tongues here, which the Holy Spirit helps with an interpretation. Why not
a translation? Because it is speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit This is not something human are able to understand intellectually they are spiritual “charismata and pneumatikos not carnal. So one cannot explain the Gifts of the Holy Spirit using humanistic terms.
They do not seek the authorial intent, they do not apply proper context, and they do not use the word of God to explain the word of God. Humanistic biblical interpretation creates terms to explain away the work of God.
“Free vocalization”, modern tongues, linguistic studies, all come from Secular humanistic approach to biblical understanding
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Interjecting medical terms and or opinions to explain the supernatural power of the Holy Spirit through HIS gifts found in 1cor 12 to 14 chapters; is not going to be contextual. The “linguistic sense” is not a biblical one. That is a humanistic approach to Biblical interpretation. Which is extreme error for a Christian to use when interpreting the word of God. " free vocalization" is too a term coined by those who have progressed from outright calling it of the devil, because after studying the gift have found it to have benefit and not fake. So now they have created “free vocalization” because they cannot answer the context of the following:
The humanistic doctrine of Biblical explanation:
The terms are very much unbiblical yet surprisingly not many have called them on it.
Yet they try to hide with Greek strong concordance words like “glossolalia” yet this term is nothing unless you place it in the context where it is used.
charisma + pneumatikos come from Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit gives them. As 1cor 12:3-4 states. You cannot take what is from the Holy Spirit as a gift, which is recorded in 1cor chapter 12, and use humanistic terms to explain the Supernatural. That is error.
The gifts as stated in 1cor 12 from verses 4 to 7 we see that giving only one operation to the “Gifts of the Holy Spirit like tongues and calling it “ glossolalia from one Greek word in the languages, is not proper Biblical interpretation. WHY? Because you had to remove what was said in 1cor 12: 4-7 in context to what the gifts do and they have more than one application.
Read:
1cor 12:4-7 you will see: diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.
there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.
the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.
As you read on in 1cor 12 everything that is given is by the Holy Spirit verse 8-11 says :
For to one is given by the Spirit(S) the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;
Glōssa is the word for tongues here, which the Holy Spirit helps with an interpretation. Why not
a translation? Because it is speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit This is not something human are able to understand intellectually they are spiritual “charismata and pneumatikos not carnal. So one cannot explain the Gifts of the Holy Spirit using humanistic terms.
They do not seek the authorial intent, they do not apply proper context, and they do not use the word of God to explain the word of God. Humanistic biblical interpretation creates terms to explain away the work of God.
“Free vocalization”, modern tongues, linguistic studies, all come from Secular humanistic approach to biblical understanding
- Gifts of The Holy Spirit
- Why is only “free vocalization” the only explanation for the gift of tongues? yet they have none for the other gifts.
- If the gifts have stopped, the topic is over, why waste time on what is not real.
The humanistic doctrine of Biblical explanation:
The terms are very much unbiblical yet surprisingly not many have called them on it.
Yet they try to hide with Greek strong concordance words like “glossolalia” yet this term is nothing unless you place it in the context where it is used.
charisma + pneumatikos come from Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit gives them. As 1cor 12:3-4 states. You cannot take what is from the Holy Spirit as a gift, which is recorded in 1cor chapter 12, and use humanistic terms to explain the Supernatural. That is error.
The gifts as stated in 1cor 12 from verses 4 to 7 we see that giving only one operation to the “Gifts of the Holy Spirit like tongues and calling it “ glossolalia from one Greek word in the languages, is not proper Biblical interpretation. WHY? Because you had to remove what was said in 1cor 12: 4-7 in context to what the gifts do and they have more than one application.
Read:
1cor 12:4-7 you will see: diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.
there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.
the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.
As you read on in 1cor 12 everything that is given is by the Holy Spirit verse 8-11 says :
For to one is given by the Spirit(S) the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;
Glōssa is the word for tongues here, which the Holy Spirit helps with an interpretation. Why not
a translation? Because it is speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit This is not something human are able to understand intellectually they are spiritual “charismata and pneumatikos not carnal. So one cannot explain the Gifts of the Holy Spirit using humanistic terms.
They do not seek the authorial intent, they do not apply proper context, and they do not use the word of God to explain the word of God. Humanistic biblical interpretation creates terms to explain away the work of God.
“Free vocalization”, modern tongues, linguistic studies, all come from Secular humanistic approach to biblical understanding