God doesn't call them one. He distinguishes them clearly in 1 Corinthians and in Ephesians.
If you would define each word separately so we can have better understanding .
He calls them as if they were one. They work to together as one work of Christ's faith. Can't have one without the other. What good would it be to have the word of God (prophecy) if there was no way to send the message? Apostles bring prophecy. He sends us out two by two to bring the gospel.
False apostles are false prophets
There isn't a single reference in Scripture to support your assertion that "tongues are prophecy".
You're ignoring relevant Scripture and mixing up references again, making your argument ridiculous. You're hung up on the reference from Isaiah.
And you seem to be hung up on removing the foundation of the doctrine of tongues (prophecy God's word in the different languages) Can we dismiss Isaiah 28 from the doctrine?
For with stammering lips (mocking lips) and another tongue (language other than Hebrew) will he speak to this people.(faithless Hebrews) To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they (The faithless Jews God is mocking) would not hear. But the word of the Lord (prophecy tongues) was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken. Wherefore hear the word of the Lord,(prophecy tongues of God).. ye scornful men,(faithless Hebrews) that rule this people which is in Jerusalem. Isaiah 28:
I have given you my private interpretation in purple. Will you define the words I underlined according to your idea.
What does the sign confirm when looking at the law in 1 Corinthians 14 :21-2? Why keep avoiding the question? Is a tongues just a noise that is not understandable and that's why we can not agree on what it confirm and who the sign is against??