Yes, and there are no such verb that Can adequately interpret this ongoing action.
Another one is Aorist Verb Tense. Once such occasion is John 14:15, in which BOTH OF THE NON-ENGLISH Verb Tenses, occur in one VERSE.
John 14:15 (ASV)
[SUP]15 [/SUP]If ye love me, ye will keep my commandments.
The ye love is in the Present, implying an ongoing striving to LOVE HIM, with by action, or obedience. So it is how we act differently AFTER we are SAVED.
BUT, the keep is in the Aorist Tense, and not the Present Tense as I thought, and even though they are wrong, they just interpret as English Past Tense. Then here is how the Blue Letter Bible explains it:
The English reader need not concern himself with most of these finer points concerning the aorist tense, since in most cases they cannot be rendered accurately in English translation, being fine points of Greek exegesis only. The common practice of rendering an aorist by a simple English past tense should suffice in most cases.
Now does that not seem insufficient? I am not a Greek Scholar, but I know how to use the Blue Letter Bible. So it would seem, that it is so difficult to correctly translate, that they just gave up and said it probably does not matter any how, and settled on just to translate it as ENGLISH Past Tense. I suspect that is a completed action, that becomes a permanent life style; but I don't really know.
There is yet another third Primary Verb Tense, but I cannot remember it name. The Greeks have 6 Primary Greek Tenses, WHILE WE only have 3 in English. Just for example: benhur - I suspect that he wants to believe HIS KJV is the ONLY inspired Translation in English language. If that is what he believes, HOW do you explain that the English Language, has 3 missing verb tenses, THEREFORE, it has to have some minor errors within the language itself? I have heard that ENGLISH because of the missing Verbs, is a POOR language at best, to try to translate the Bible into.