But this is what I said! Yes, the Greek says these things. Read my earlier post!
The issue is with which word to pick. Again, Authentein is a hapax legomena. It is only found ONCE in the bible. So, we cannot consult other uses of this word, and instead we have to use contemporaneous sources. That means, how do first century documents use this word?
But before we discuss that, we must ask the question, why did Paul use a word, found no where else in the bible? Surely if he was talking about "authority" it would have been so much simpler to just have used exousia? That is literally the word used for "authority" every other time this word can be found, at least in English.
It means that true authority that comes from God, the authority and power which only Jesus has, is NOT the word that Paul is using.
So he uses an obscure word, instead. Why? Because, he didn't want his writing to imply men have the authority over women. In fact, authentein has over 50 different uses in 1st century literature. That includes definitions like murder and copulation. So why would Paul pick this word?
Well, I think authentein is a very negative word, talking about the behaviour of the women in church. The culture in Ephesus had been matriarchal, with the women priestesses running the cult practices at the temple of Artemis. So, they obviously weren't behaving! Now, remember this is a private letter to Timothy. A pastoral letter, to be exact. Paul was discussing something that Timothy must have written to him about. Just like 1 & 2 Corinthians are a part of 4 letters Paul wrote, and there were return letters, the fact that Paul wrote 2 letters to Timothy, implied some back and forth between the two of them.
Now, if Paul had used "exousia" the sentence structure would have been had to have been greatly changed to force it to say what people are claiming it says. That is:
"A man has authority over a woman."
But no, that is not what Paul is saying. He is not talking about any nonsensical roles, or order, he is addressing a PROBLEM in the church at Ephesus. So, he talks, using a word that implies negative behaviour on the part of the women.
What was that negative behaviour? Well, we can infer form the rest of the passage, two things.
1. A woman was being disruptive. She was trying to domineer, or pretend she was in authority (like she had been at the temple of Artemis - conjecture, I admit!)
2. This woman was teaching error. One of the myths of the cult religion of Artemis, was that woman was created first. Woman was first, then men. So the last part of chapter 2 also deals with the fact that this woman has bad theology. The Greek mystery religion may have believed the woman was created first, because they worshiped female fecundity. Witness the statures of Artemis, which the layers of breasts around her image on the statues they made.
So, Paul's goal was NEVER to come up with some a theology of hierarchy of roles in 1 Tim. 2. And NEVER to imply that women can't be pastors. His goal was to find some ways to ease the problems in Ephesus. He doesn't name the women (please remember women in 1 Tim. 2:12 is SINGULAR!) because he has hopes that she can be restored.
Why do we know he hopes this? Because elsewhere, he condemned Alexander and Hymenaeus. They are GONE! But, with the woman, he says that she is to learn quietly, (like the rabbinical students). And the word "learn" is in the imperative. So, she is commanded to learn. In other words, Paul wants her to stop taking over, when she probably has no clue as to what is going on, and learn the truth about Jesus. And the logical corollary of needing to learn, is not teaching a man, which it sounds like this woman had been doing!
Finally, such an important fact is that this word is an infinitive. You simply cannot say, "a woman is not to authority." Which is what you have to do to be true to the text. Hence, adding the verb "exercise, " and coming up with "exercise authority." No, you need a VERB to make it make sense. So, you could say "rule" or "dominate." But, since the other 1st century literature always uses this word in a negative sense, probably better to use something like "to dominate" rather than neutral words like "rule."
But, as far as this using this entire passage to prove;
a. Men have authority over women.
b. Women cannot be pastors
Not so much! This is simply not a verse which sets down a universal principle for all time. To read it that way, does a terrible injustice not only to this verse, chapter and book but to the entire Bible.
The issue is with which word to pick. Again, Authentein is a hapax legomena. It is only found ONCE in the bible. So, we cannot consult other uses of this word, and instead we have to use contemporaneous sources. That means, how do first century documents use this word?
But before we discuss that, we must ask the question, why did Paul use a word, found no where else in the bible? Surely if he was talking about "authority" it would have been so much simpler to just have used exousia? That is literally the word used for "authority" every other time this word can be found, at least in English.
It means that true authority that comes from God, the authority and power which only Jesus has, is NOT the word that Paul is using.
So he uses an obscure word, instead. Why? Because, he didn't want his writing to imply men have the authority over women. In fact, authentein has over 50 different uses in 1st century literature. That includes definitions like murder and copulation. So why would Paul pick this word?
Well, I think authentein is a very negative word, talking about the behaviour of the women in church. The culture in Ephesus had been matriarchal, with the women priestesses running the cult practices at the temple of Artemis. So, they obviously weren't behaving! Now, remember this is a private letter to Timothy. A pastoral letter, to be exact. Paul was discussing something that Timothy must have written to him about. Just like 1 & 2 Corinthians are a part of 4 letters Paul wrote, and there were return letters, the fact that Paul wrote 2 letters to Timothy, implied some back and forth between the two of them.
Now, if Paul had used "exousia" the sentence structure would have been had to have been greatly changed to force it to say what people are claiming it says. That is:
"A man has authority over a woman."
But no, that is not what Paul is saying. He is not talking about any nonsensical roles, or order, he is addressing a PROBLEM in the church at Ephesus. So, he talks, using a word that implies negative behaviour on the part of the women.
What was that negative behaviour? Well, we can infer form the rest of the passage, two things.
1. A woman was being disruptive. She was trying to domineer, or pretend she was in authority (like she had been at the temple of Artemis - conjecture, I admit!)
2. This woman was teaching error. One of the myths of the cult religion of Artemis, was that woman was created first. Woman was first, then men. So the last part of chapter 2 also deals with the fact that this woman has bad theology. The Greek mystery religion may have believed the woman was created first, because they worshiped female fecundity. Witness the statures of Artemis, which the layers of breasts around her image on the statues they made.
So, Paul's goal was NEVER to come up with some a theology of hierarchy of roles in 1 Tim. 2. And NEVER to imply that women can't be pastors. His goal was to find some ways to ease the problems in Ephesus. He doesn't name the women (please remember women in 1 Tim. 2:12 is SINGULAR!) because he has hopes that she can be restored.
Why do we know he hopes this? Because elsewhere, he condemned Alexander and Hymenaeus. They are GONE! But, with the woman, he says that she is to learn quietly, (like the rabbinical students). And the word "learn" is in the imperative. So, she is commanded to learn. In other words, Paul wants her to stop taking over, when she probably has no clue as to what is going on, and learn the truth about Jesus. And the logical corollary of needing to learn, is not teaching a man, which it sounds like this woman had been doing!
Finally, such an important fact is that this word is an infinitive. You simply cannot say, "a woman is not to authority." Which is what you have to do to be true to the text. Hence, adding the verb "exercise, " and coming up with "exercise authority." No, you need a VERB to make it make sense. So, you could say "rule" or "dominate." But, since the other 1st century literature always uses this word in a negative sense, probably better to use something like "to dominate" rather than neutral words like "rule."
But, as far as this using this entire passage to prove;
a. Men have authority over women.
b. Women cannot be pastors
Not so much! This is simply not a verse which sets down a universal principle for all time. To read it that way, does a terrible injustice not only to this verse, chapter and book but to the entire Bible.
Oh, Angela, so much of eisegesis... what happened to Sola Scriptura?
In this way, we can explain out almost everything we do not like.