I believe you INTERPRET IT WRONG, because you are desperately trying to justify your personal experience, because of wonderful feelings it generates,
I can't say I feel any more wonderful praying in tongues than I do praying in English or singing in English. My faith is not feelings-based, though I do appreciate joy, peace, and other fruits of the Spirit.
In fact Plato centuries before Christ, used to speak in tongues in the Greek Mystery Religion that he attended.
You quoted the John MacArthur commentary below. John MacArthur's commentary is sensible on some issues, but his sermons and commentaries are some of the worst sources I've ever seen when it comes to commentary on speaking in tongues. The approach to scripture is similar to what homosexuals use to justify homosexuality, the same sort of abuse of the historical and cultural approach to scripture that some of the liberals use. His interpretation of I Corinthians 14 does not stand up to a simple reading of the text.
You quoted MacArthur's commentary:
14:2-39 Although it is not indicated consistently in some translations, the distinction between the singular tongue and the plural tongues is foundational to the proper interpretation of this chapter. Paul seems to use the singular to distinguish the counterfeit gift of pagan gibberish and the plural to indicate the genuine gift of a foreign language (see note on v. 2).
One of his sermons describes Corinthian tongues as 'pagan tongues' comparing them to the utterances of the Oracle at Delphi. This is an outlandish interpretation, where he is so prejudiced against the gift that he even calls the exercise of the gift by Christians as recorded in scripture 'pagan'! That is really over the top, and a very poor and dangerous approach to the topic. Maybe some of his editors vetted some of the more outlandish elements of his argument. I don't know. That sermon was still on his website the last I checked.
The assertion in this commentary does not hold up to a simple reading of the chapter. This interpretation reminds me a bit of some of the false assertions I've heard Charismatics make about the 'rhema/logos' distinction, except you need a concordance to debunk that with a simple reading of the text. Here you just have to read the chapter in the KJV.
This verse debunks the assertion in the MacArthur commentary.
I Corinthians 14
13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.
That is the exact same grammatical form of the Greek word, case and all, as in verse 2. Here, we see Paul wanted him to speak in an unknown 'tongue', singular, to pray that he may interpret. If the 'tongue' here were a false pagan tongue, how would interpreting it edify other people? Why would Paul want it interpreted?
I'm assuming the note on verse 2 argues that the 'tongue' by which one speaks mysteries in the Spirit is a bad thing, false thing, or pagan thing, because in one of his sermons, he considered this to be 'pagan tongues.' (A gift of the Spirit being called a pagan tongue is close to blasphemy if it has not crossed the line!)
But if you think singular 'tongue' is good and 'tongues' is false, then Paul says,
18 I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
Notice Paul speaks in plural 'tongues.' Since God speak to the people with men of other 'tongues', we shouldn't say 'tongues', plural is bad. (The KJV is consistent with it's use of plurals on this issue.)
If we really look at the chapter, then it makes more sense to interpret the plural of 'tongues' as referring to more than one language, and the singular to one language.
It makes sense to interpret singular to mean singular and plural to mean plural. Go figure. Really think about it. You are being duped by a commentary that argues that the singular of a word refers to something bad--instead of the singular, and the plural refers to something good-- instead of the plural? Talk about an irrational, arbitrary argument.
If you really have to resort to such absurdity to hold on to this particular belief, you should question your belief.
More from the John MacArthur commentary:
It was perhaps in recognition of that, that the King James Version (KJV) translators added consistently the word “unknown” before every singular form (see vv. 2, 4, 13, 14, 19, 27).
Most of us who use the KJV can see that that word is in italics. I've seen straw man arguments made of this before, but it would be rare indeed for a Pentecostal or Charismatic to make an argument based on the presence of the word 'unknown' in the KJV. No doctrine rests on it. Maybe the KJV writers put that in there because in the context, the tongue is unknown, and they were trying out a bit of their version of dynamic equivalence.
The implications of that distinction will be noted as appropriate. Against the backdrop of carnality and counterfeit ecstatic speech learned from the experience of the pagans,
J. Vernon McGee
For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries [1Cor. 14:2].Note that the word unknown is in italics in your Bible, and that means it is not in the original Greek. Nowhere in the Bible does it speak of unknown tongues. It should read: "For he that speaketh in a tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries." Because nobody will understand him, he is not to speak in a language that is unknown to the group -- unless somebody there can interpret.
We will see in this chapter that there are three gifts which Paul emphasizes: prophecy, tongues, and the interpretation of tongues. Have you ever noticed that there is very little reference to tongues in the Bible except in these three chapters? There are references to it in Mark 16:17 and Acts 2:3-4, 11; Acts 10:46; Acts 19:6. Cornelius and his household spoke in tongues. The disciples of John in Ephesus spoke in tongues after Paul had preached the gospel to them. We find, therefore, that tongues were used at the institution of the dispensation of grace. Every time tongues were used, they were used in that connection. There was speaking in tongues on the Day of Pentecost when the gospel went to the nation of Israel. There was speaking in tongues at the home of Cornelius when the gospel was opened to the Gentiles. There was speaking in tongues in Ephesus when the gospel moved out into the uttermost parts of the earth. Those are the three instances.
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