The paragraph below is what I said word for word in response to his opinion that no fault divorce wasn't needed. "Are you" is what I technically said. I'm not sure if sounds any better. I'm not sure if you all read the questions in context. In any case, my intent was never to be accusatory. I was trying to understnsd how he could believe no fault divorce was only needed if there was no reason for a divorce. Even though I thought I was careful how I worded it (I even changed the questions because I didn't want them to sound accusatory) I guess I'll be more careful next time. :/
"1. When no fault divorce started it was because women were abused. Some men abused their wives and prior to no fault women needed proof to get the divorce. Proof that couldn't always be shown. That was needed....then. Now, it is a different story. Why is there no personal responsibility for men? Are you saying that men have been nothing but good to women? Are you saying women weren't secretly and openly abused? Are you saying women weren't treated unfairly? I'm willing to admit women have failed in taking advantage of the system. Women have failed in their treatment of men in today's western culture. Women have failed but so have men. BOTH genders share the weight of the ugliness of it all."
"1. When no fault divorce started it was because women were abused. Some men abused their wives and prior to no fault women needed proof to get the divorce. Proof that couldn't always be shown. That was needed....then. Now, it is a different story. Why is there no personal responsibility for men? Are you saying that men have been nothing but good to women? Are you saying women weren't secretly and openly abused? Are you saying women weren't treated unfairly? I'm willing to admit women have failed in taking advantage of the system. Women have failed in their treatment of men in today's western culture. Women have failed but so have men. BOTH genders share the weight of the ugliness of it all."
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