Why does it need "correction"? "The LORD" stands for "YHWH" and there were no vowels in that word. It is written as either Jehovah or Yahweh, but it makes no difference. Because Jews did not wish to pronounce that name for fear of violating the third commandment, they substituted "Adonai" for YHWH. "Adonai" means "Lord" so "the LORD" is what the King James translators used. There is nothing objectionable in that. The word "Jehovah" occurs only four times in the KJB. And since Jehovah is in fact Jesus, we have the name of Jesus as the name above all names.
This is, I think, the best explanation so far in this thread.
I do have a few minor issues, though.
1. There are no vowels in ancient Hebrew, at all. Yet they spoke. The letters have sounds. In this case the letters are yod, hey, wow, hey, and the W has a long U sound (never V). There is much precedent for pronouncing Hebrew words.
2. The fear of breaking the 3rd commandment was introduced with Pharisees. Moses, Joshua, et. al. did not have this fear. It is actually a practice of the Samaria religion to hide the name of their god(s). So they used titles like, Adonai.
The practice of using the J sound was introduced from the Yiddish, Ashkanasi (sp?) somewhere around the 15th century CE.
I don't have a problem with calling God, God or Jesus, Jesus. These are the terms I use. I do try to drill down academically, though.