Why is God's Name NOT in the Bible?
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Well, "Lord" isn't the right English translation of YHVH. YHVH is a proper name. The Hebrew word which means lord is Adon.
I don't know how familiar you are with this subject, but if you look up almost any passage in the Old Testament where you find the word "Lord" in small caps, you'll find that the word translated is YHVH, not Adon.
No part of any movement. I think that Yeshua is used a lot. I thought it was probably correct but it makes more sense as Yahusha because it includes God's name and carries the meaning of "God's salvation". They are very similar, though.
There is no V in ancient Hebrew. Strong's is wrong. The actual Hebrew letters are YHWH not YHVH.
There were some competing schools of thought on Strong's translation. I found that the letter used is W and has a long U sound. Of course I understand that many would disagree but we are to seek the truth and that is my conclusion. One of my main concerns (about myself) is to always be open to other ideas and evidence. I'll bet I have changed my position 6 times on the rapture until I got down and studied it for myself. I really appreciate your input.
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I had it explained to my satisfaction that Yeshua is the accurate name by One For Israel. I belong to several other online Messianic groups and they also promote the use of Yeshua. So it's what I use, though I wouldn't try to pressure others to do so.
I only learned of my Hebrew ancestry a few years ago, so I kinda have one foot in the church and one in the Messianic community. I generally use Jesus around here. It depends who I'm talking to.
I only learned of my Hebrew ancestry a few years ago, so I kinda have one foot in the church and one in the Messianic community. I generally use Jesus around here. It depends who I'm talking to.
Why does it need "correction"? "The LORD" stands for "YHWH" and there were no vowels in that word. It is written as either Jehovah or Yahweh, but it makes no difference. Because Jews did not wish to pronounce that name for fear of violating the third commandment, they substituted "Adonai" for YHWH. "Adonai" means "Lord" so "the LORD" is what the King James translators used. There is nothing objectionable in that. The word "Jehovah" occurs only four times in the KJB. And since Jehovah is in fact Jesus, we have the name of Jesus as the name above all names.
I really do appreciate everyone that has posted here. I am new to this and don't want to sound blunt or argumentative. When I read back my words they sometimes look like I have a bad attitude. I truly feel blessed to find a place to air my questions (and opinions) in a way that is impossible for me to do in my regular church. Just so you know that my love for you is real. Thanks.
Maybe this could help explain the question?
That at least gives a rationale for why the KJV revisers did what they did but it doesn't change the fact that it's an incorrect translation.
Only errors need to be correct. So after over 400 years you are presuming to be the authority on whether this was erroneous. And that in itself is an error. Why don't you simply accept the fact that "the LORD" stands for "God" and move on? So let me tell you your error. God (Jesus) says that His name is "I AM THAT I AM" or "I AM" (not YHWH). So do you wish to see this substituted for "the LORD"?
And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations. (Exodus 3:13-15)
And that is why Jesus told the Jews that before Abraham was "I AM" and that if they did not believe that He was "I AM" they would die in their sins.
And you -- presumably -- are the authority on that? Did God give you a divine revelation that "the LORD" is "incorrect"?
Agreed. Depends who I am talking to too. What is your view on requiring Jesus to be referred to as Jesus of Nazareth?
This is, I think, the best explanation so far in this thread.
I do have a few minor issues, though.
1. There are no vowels in ancient Hebrew, at all. Yet they spoke. The letters have sounds. In this case the letters are yod, hey, wow, hey, and the W has a long U sound (never V). There is much precedent for pronouncing Hebrew words.
2. The fear of breaking the 3rd commandment was introduced with Pharisees. Moses, Joshua, et. al. did not have this fear. It is actually a practice of the Samaria religion to hide the name of their god(s). So they used titles like, Adonai.
The practice of using the J sound was introduced from the Yiddish, Ashkanasi (sp?) somewhere around the 15th century CE.
I don't have a problem with calling God, God or Jesus, Jesus. These are the terms I use. I do try to drill down academically, though.