I already stated in my point 8, signs and wonders are done among the Gentiles, yes, to alert Israel of the change in dispensation (Acts 15:12)
The verse you cite does not support that idea that the reason for signs among the Gentiles was to alert Israel to a change of dispensation. The danger of your approach is that it leads one to reject teachings of scripture to the church as being applicable for the church (e.g. on spiritual gifts in I Corinthians 12) based on doctrine that is built on no scripture as all. Posting a scripture that does not support your assertion is not evidence for your position. Why should one reject the teaching of scripture based on your mere assertions?
Yes, those signs are done among Gentiles for that purpose too. My point 1 quoted from Psalms 74:9 that Israel always see signs as "theirs". So what better way to provoke them to jealousy than God performing "their signs" among the heathen dogs?
Now God is no longer dealing with the nation Israel, they are as uncircumcised as any other nation on Earth.
That contradicts scripture. Read Romans 11. God is using Gentile conversion to provoke Israel to jealousy. There is no reason to think that the provoking to jealousy situation has changed between the time Paul wrote about it and the time that the fullness of the Gentiles be come in, described in Romans 11.
Let us look at some verses in Romans 11.
11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
12 Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness?
13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office:
14 If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them.
15 For if the casting away of them be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead?
Why would the provoking of Israel to jealousy in verse 11 and end before the receiving of them in verse 15? And some do come to faith. Paul wrote in this chapter that the blindness was 'in part.'
Romans 15 also argues against your point of view. Consider these verses:
18 For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,
19 Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ.
Notice first of all that Paul's ministry among the Gentiles, which from the perspective of Romans 11 served the purpose of provoking Israel to jealousy, involved preaching the Gospel among the Gentiles accompanied by signs and wonders.
We also see another function or purpose of signs and wonders in this passage: to make the Gentiles obedient. Signs and wonders are not exclusively for the Jews. And since we are still in the time when the Gentiles are coming in while Gentile conversion is provoking the Jews to jealousy, as was the case also when Paul wrote Romans, there is no reason we should assume that God will not continue to perform signs through the saints or that the spiritual gifts described in other passages will not function in the church.