Yes, that's correct, many people do not believe in the Trinity and use that very reason. But have provided Scripture that says the exact opposite of TULIP, there lies the difference. We know that God loves the sinner, His Word says so. We can revisit the Bible verses again if you wish.
In other words, your complaint about "tulip" not being explicitly stated in the bible, just like the term "trinity" isn't, is bogus. The real reason you believe in the triunity of God is because the trinitarian
concept is often found in the bible -- just like the concepts for each letter that represents a specific doctrine in the acronym of TULIP are, which is why Reformed believers believe in those doctrines.
And, no, no one has refuted the Doctrines of Grace. The "Scripture(s)" that you claim "says the exact opposite" are grossly misinterpreted, such as 1Jn 2:2 which I refuted again very recently in its own immediate context for Mr. Bain. Or the scriptures that you FWers claim teach unregenerate man's ability to make choices contrary to his his evil nature, which, again, I recently refuted by citing the Law of Moses which required perfect obedience at all times under all circumstances, and also by citing Jn 8:11 wherein Jesus commanded the "adulterous" woman to stop sinning.
You say above that "We know that God loves the sinner". As a FWer, I take it that you mean by this God loves all sinners in the distributive sense? If so, then consider these two passages in Proverbs 11. The first of which is:
Prov 11:1
The LORD abhors dishonest scales,
but accurate weights are his delight
NIV
It's very likely that the vast majority of people here would agree that God hates (or abhors or detests) sin, since all sin is infinitely offensive to God's holy character. Just one sin is sufficient to condemn a person for all eternity. The Heb. term
two ebah (Strong's 8441) rendered as "abhors" in the above text is defined according to BLB.org:
tôwʻêbah, to-ay-baw'; or תֹּעֵבַה tôʻêbah; feminine active participle of H8581; properly, something disgusting (morally), i.e. (as noun) an abhorrence; especially idolatry or (concretely) an idol:—abominable (custom, thing), abomination.
https://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H8441&t=KJV
This Hebrew term is used a second time in this chapter, as follows:
Prov 11:20
20 The LORD detests men of perverse heart
but he delights in those whose ways are blameless.
NIV
Ouch! So, this very same Hebrew word is used to tell us that God abhors (or detests) sin and the sinner alike! But how can this possibly be since God loves everyone in the world in the distributive sense according to you FWers? But not only does God supposedly love each and every person in the world, but he loves them
unconditionally according to most within the Church. (Even the Reformed Presbyterian pastor at my previous church believed this!)
So...how do you explain this? How do you reconcile God's universal AND unconditional love for all mankind with Prov 11:20? I also invite anyone to jump into this discussion to reconcile these conflicting beliefs.
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