Christ superceeds everything else.
I’m yes we don’t have a liscence to sin I agree with that. Truth is though we have only
I agree we don’t have a license to sin but your view of the mosaic law is not in line with the New Testament Moses Gave one testament Jesus gave another .
“Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;”
Romans 3:19-
Thisnisntje righteousness of God without the law that they witnessed
“The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.”
Luke 16:16 KJV
That will be preached until the end it’s about the word of God through Christ
“For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge. For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God. For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.”
Romans 10:2-4
“But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.”
Galatians 5:18 KJV
“It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.”
John 6:63 KJV
our obedience and faith are in Christ not Moses
You are right and wrong all at the same time. This is typical of post-protestant church members.
THERE IS NO SUCH THING AS A LICENSE TO SIN.
You agreed with me on this point early in your post, but denied it later on with misinterpretation of scriptural application of the LAW. Are you attempting to justify SIN and LAWlessness or are you not? The words of a double minded man are not efficacious.
Do you not understand such an argument is used to subvert God's plan of redemption as well as western civilization as a whole? You demonstrate a confused double-minded understanding of what the LAW is and what it is meant to convey.
NO ONE CAN BE SAVED APART FROM THE LAW.
What is the purpose of the LAW? Do you know? (Sunday school 101)
The Torah, first five books of the Bible, chronicle the establishment of 613 laws.
The bulk of those laws apply to the expression and celebration of Judaism. Specifically they refer to dietary laws, ceremonial laws, and laws regarding civil actions, violations and criminal acts. The society established under Moses is technically known as a Theocracy. An example of a modern Theocracy is the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia and its Muslim neighbors. Today the State of Israel is a democracy. Its laws and observances are markedly different as a consequence.
Many of the old ceremonial laws and ordinances became obsolete and passed away when the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and Herod's temple in 70 AD. The Roman destruction is a watershed moment in the history of Israel as well as understanding of Biblical references to the LAW as they appear in the Epistles of the New Testament.
When the writer of the book of Hebrews states the LAW is becoming obsolete (8:13), the temple had not yet been destroyed. Animal sacrifices, as required by the LAW, were still being performed. Following the death and resurrection of Christ they were no longer necessary.
"
I did NOT come to abolish the LAW, but to fulfill it." - Jesus as quoted by Matthew 5:17
If Jesus didn't abolish the LAW, then what did He do to fulfill it and when was that accomplished? Why was it necessary for Jesus to fulfill the LAW and what makes the changes He made to be perfect? Do you know? If so, please tell us.
When Paul writes in Romans 10 that Jesus is the end of the LAW, Paul meant two things.
1. The imperfect LAW passed into history. (What was that imperfect LAW? Do you know?)
2. Jesus became the perfect definition of the LAW as God gave too Moses. (The second section of the Bible is called the New Covenant. What is the New Covenant or LAW and what expression of God's divine providence established it?)
If licentiousness is denied, as you say it is, then upon what other than the LAW is obedience and trust in God to be based?
You can't deny the LAW and cover it with licentious grace. You can't have it both ways. Grace is given that we may live according to the LAW. Apart from grace, this is an impossible task.
(Acts 2-1-31)
Do you not know that the Jewish festival of weeks is called Shavout? This is the observance of God's gift of the
LAW.
Do you not know that the Christian festival of Pentecost is the observance of God's gift of
GRACE via the Holy Spirit (Ruach Ha-Kodesh)?
Do you not know that BOTH happened on the SAME CALENDAR DAY? Look it up.
Is this a coincidence or is God saying LAW and GRACE are given to mankind for the purpose of salvation and right living?
LAW and GRACE aren't separate matters. They are two sides of the same coin as it were.
Grace isn't given to justify LAWlessness and the LAW isn't given to make the life of man a misery of pointless ceremonies.'
They are given to save and Jesus is the focal point of its application.
that's me, hollering from the choir loft...