I do believe it does address your point. They are the rules of grammar. A language where the rules of grammar are overturned is incapable of transmitting a coherent idea.
As to your example, the answer is in verse 9. Are ALL MEN saved "through Him"? The term "we" applies to a favored party and implies a party who were not saved. And verse 2 sets forth who this favored party are; "By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand ... ." Not only is another party, who are without faith implied, but the whole Bible tells of this opposite party.
As to your example, the answer is in verse 9. Are ALL MEN saved "through Him"? The term "we" applies to a favored party and implies a party who were not saved. And verse 2 sets forth who this favored party are; "By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand ... ." Not only is another party, who are without faith implied, but the whole Bible tells of this opposite party.
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
its the same deal here in Rom 5
6¶For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
7For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die.
8But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
9Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
10For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.
11And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.