If a person's position is that the only reason a Christian is not under Law to tithe is because the Levitical Priesthood is changed, such that a person teaches all non-sacrificial Law is still binding on Gentiles who come to faith, then what about the following?
Deuteronomy 14:28-29
At the end of three years thou shalt bring forth all the tithe of thine increase the same year, and shalt lay [it] up within thy gates: And the Levite, (because he hath no part nor inheritance with thee,) and the stranger, and the fatherless, and the widow, which [are] within thy gates, shall come, and shall eat and be satisfied; that the LORD thy God may bless thee in all the work of thine hand which thou doest.
This tithe is not just for Levi it's for all the poor. Would a person whose doctrine is that we are all under all the Law except for sacrifices then still be compelled to give a tenth ((12% if with coin)) to the poor, or face judgement by this Law?