yea??? will pardon me all to heaven!
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How many here believe the literal Word of God in the Bible
- Thread starter Roar
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yea??? will pardon me all to heaven!
“The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?”
John 6:52 KJV
“Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”
John 6:53-54 KJV
literal ? Or is there a spiritual understanding applicable ?
“Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is an hard saying; who can hear it?…
yes if Jesus was speaking literally it would be a very hard teaching out Canabalism but he wasn’t speaking literally
It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.”
John 6:60, 63 KJV
to take him literally often is why people go away from following him
“From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.”
John 6:66
Jesus was actually revealing thkngs from Moses law when he was telling them these things
Jesus is the Passover lamb in the ot the congregation of Israel would once a year gather and kill a spotless male Passover lamb his blood would cover the people from death and they would eat the Passover lambs flesh .
and then another area he’s revealing is the manna from Heaven which God sent from heaven through Moses to feed the people in the desert , he’s explaining g that was only a prophecy of his coming the. BRead of life who would give life to the world
when we say the New Testament is spiritual what that means is it is fulfilling the law and prophets and what was written before about Christ
like the Passover lamb who’s flesh and blood saved the people from death. Or like the manna which gave them food in the wilderness to sustain them
literal isn’t the way to understand Jesus , but receiving the Holy Spirit is the way
John 6:52 KJV
“Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”
John 6:53-54 KJV
literal ? Or is there a spiritual understanding applicable ?
“Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is an hard saying; who can hear it?…
yes if Jesus was speaking literally it would be a very hard teaching out Canabalism but he wasn’t speaking literally
It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.”
John 6:60, 63 KJV
to take him literally often is why people go away from following him
“From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.”
John 6:66
Jesus was actually revealing thkngs from Moses law when he was telling them these things
Jesus is the Passover lamb in the ot the congregation of Israel would once a year gather and kill a spotless male Passover lamb his blood would cover the people from death and they would eat the Passover lambs flesh .
and then another area he’s revealing is the manna from Heaven which God sent from heaven through Moses to feed the people in the desert , he’s explaining g that was only a prophecy of his coming the. BRead of life who would give life to the world
when we say the New Testament is spiritual what that means is it is fulfilling the law and prophets and what was written before about Christ
like the Passover lamb who’s flesh and blood saved the people from death. Or like the manna which gave them food in the wilderness to sustain them
literal isn’t the way to understand Jesus , but receiving the Holy Spirit is the way
amen that’s the only way to understand Paul his doctrine came from the ot scripture
“Having therefore obtained help of God, I continue unto this day, witnessing both to small and great, saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come:
That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.”
Acts 26:22-23 KJV
Paul was shown revelation of the scriptures the main area of Paul’s mystery was that jew and gentile would be of the same flock and have the same messiah , how Christ would begin in Israel but would spread out from there to the whole world offering salvstion to all
“And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.”
Isaiah 49:6 KJV
he spoke of Christ showing light to the people and Gentiles
“Hearken unto me, my people; and give ear unto me, O my nation: for a law shall proceed from me, and I will make my judgment to rest for a light of the people. My righteousness is near; my salvation is gone forth, and mine arms shall judge the people; the isles shall wait upon me, and on mine arm shall they trust.”
Isaiah 51:4-5 KJV
Paul’s arguments for Christ being the promised messiah are all rooted in the law and prophets
“And when they had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening.”
Acts 28:23 KJV
it’s interesting when you realize where Paul’s doctrine is coming from and start seeing the ot scriptures he’s revealing the Bible becomes much simpler especially Paul’s writings they become a powerful witness of the cohesive nature of all scripture from the law to revelation
“Having therefore obtained help of God, I continue unto this day, witnessing both to small and great, saying none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come:
That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.”
Acts 26:22-23 KJV
Paul was shown revelation of the scriptures the main area of Paul’s mystery was that jew and gentile would be of the same flock and have the same messiah , how Christ would begin in Israel but would spread out from there to the whole world offering salvstion to all
“And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.”
Isaiah 49:6 KJV
he spoke of Christ showing light to the people and Gentiles
“Hearken unto me, my people; and give ear unto me, O my nation: for a law shall proceed from me, and I will make my judgment to rest for a light of the people. My righteousness is near; my salvation is gone forth, and mine arms shall judge the people; the isles shall wait upon me, and on mine arm shall they trust.”
Isaiah 51:4-5 KJV
Paul’s arguments for Christ being the promised messiah are all rooted in the law and prophets
“And when they had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening.”
Acts 28:23 KJV
it’s interesting when you realize where Paul’s doctrine is coming from and start seeing the ot scriptures he’s revealing the Bible becomes much simpler especially Paul’s writings they become a powerful witness of the cohesive nature of all scripture from the law to revelation
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No, my point is that the penners of holy scripture were not infallible, and yet they came up with the unadulterated message of the gospel when they penned the holy scripture.
Could not the translators also have come up with the unadulterated message of the whole counsel of God in their translation, though they were not infallible?
Could not the translators also have come up with the unadulterated message of the whole counsel of God in their translation, though they were not infallible?
About 5 years ago was the first time I encountered these cultists online. Thankfully I've never met any in real life and
the KJV readers I know don't have a problem with other translations. The Onlyists have been ruthless in their attacks
on my preferred translations. Every charge I've checked up on has proved to be false. They don't acccept proof but
continue to repeat the same insults and detractions.
When the translation explains that the manuscripts vary or the exact meaning of the Hebrew word is uncertain,
it seems to upset the Onlyits. The alleged "missing verses" are always there to read.
The below example is the longest section of verses that differ in available manuscripts.
As can be seen quite clearly, they are not omitted. they are explained and included. (Mark 16:9-20)
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark 16&version=NIVUK,KJV
the KJV readers I know don't have a problem with other translations. The Onlyists have been ruthless in their attacks
on my preferred translations. Every charge I've checked up on has proved to be false. They don't acccept proof but
continue to repeat the same insults and detractions.
When the translation explains that the manuscripts vary or the exact meaning of the Hebrew word is uncertain,
it seems to upset the Onlyits. The alleged "missing verses" are always there to read.
The below example is the longest section of verses that differ in available manuscripts.
As can be seen quite clearly, they are not omitted. they are explained and included. (Mark 16:9-20)
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark 16&version=NIVUK,KJV
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If you believe that God is sovereign and omnipotent and loving, and because of that, He superintended the translation of one translation, then you must logically concede that because He is sovereign and omnipotent and loving, that He superintended all translations. There is no soundness to the fantasy that He did one but not the other.
That's an ad hominem fallacy. Two, actually.
That's an ad hominem fallacy. Two, actually.
You implied that the Holy Spirit is limited by the translation. Here are your words:
You are claiming that the Holy Spirit is able to minister "better" when we study the KJV. The clear implication is that the Holy Spirit is not able to minister "superbly" when we don't study the KJV.
In other words, the Holy Spirit is limited by the translation we use. That is what you are claiming, whether you admit it or not.
Prove it. Provide even a shred of evidence. Or admit that your claim is absolute hogwash.
You are claiming that the Holy Spirit is able to minister "better" when we study the KJV. The clear implication is that the Holy Spirit is not able to minister "superbly" when we don't study the KJV.
In other words, the Holy Spirit is limited by the translation we use. That is what you are claiming, whether you admit it or not.
Prove it. Provide even a shred of evidence. Or admit that your claim is absolute hogwash.