A contradiction of Mark 16:16?
No..
(Mar 16:16) KJV: He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Notice the later part of this verse. Being damned is conditioned on not believing. Not on 'not getting water baptised'
Often we can put a verse into it's opposite and think it is true. For eg.. 'He that believeth and is not baptised shall not be saved.'
The problem is.. this is false logic. Not everything put in opposite of a positive statement is true. Just compare Mark 16:16 with John 5:24, 6:40, 10:28, Romans 10:9-10. Where is the weight of scripture? What is it saying? Do you establish a doctrine of water baptism for salvation based on a few verses.. or the full weight of scripture?
Same goes for Acts 2:38
Act 2:38 KJV: Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
This is ONE verse of a few that have baptism being put with remission (forgiveness) of sin.
Key question: Who is Peter talking to?
Act 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Act 2:37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
What were they called to do first? Get water baptised?
No-- repent.. having a change of mind, heart from God.
The other part of this..is being baptised in the name of Jesus 'for' the remission of sin.
In English grammar.. you can be given something 'for' an illness.
So.. you get water baptism 'for' the fact of already having remission of sin. Now.. so you will say I am just interpreting this to match my own wishes.. but what does the full weight of scripture say about eternal salvation? How many verses.. again.. have not water baptism in them.. but are about receiving eternal life?
No..
(Mar 16:16) KJV: He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Notice the later part of this verse. Being damned is conditioned on not believing. Not on 'not getting water baptised'
Often we can put a verse into it's opposite and think it is true. For eg.. 'He that believeth and is not baptised shall not be saved.'
The problem is.. this is false logic. Not everything put in opposite of a positive statement is true. Just compare Mark 16:16 with John 5:24, 6:40, 10:28, Romans 10:9-10. Where is the weight of scripture? What is it saying? Do you establish a doctrine of water baptism for salvation based on a few verses.. or the full weight of scripture?
Same goes for Acts 2:38
Act 2:38 KJV: Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
This is ONE verse of a few that have baptism being put with remission (forgiveness) of sin.
Key question: Who is Peter talking to?
Act 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Act 2:37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
What were they called to do first? Get water baptised?
No-- repent.. having a change of mind, heart from God.
The other part of this..is being baptised in the name of Jesus 'for' the remission of sin.
In English grammar.. you can be given something 'for' an illness.
So.. you get water baptism 'for' the fact of already having remission of sin. Now.. so you will say I am just interpreting this to match my own wishes.. but what does the full weight of scripture say about eternal salvation? How many verses.. again.. have not water baptism in them.. but are about receiving eternal life?
The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say, "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention it in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the 1 requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements *BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47)
In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So, the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
- 1
- 1
- Show all