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K

kennethcadwell

Guest
#81
#81
Maynard said:
You're just pasting scripture.

What's ur point?

If it's Luke 1:25 then scroll up. That's been discussed already,, twice.
Don't just rant. Read too.
Click to expand...

What she gave you was from Matthew 1:23-25, not Luke.

It says in the KJV he did not know her tell she gave birth to Jesus. To know some one as in given in this scripture biblically means in the sexual sense. We know that because Joseph already knew Mary before she gave birth, so it could not have been just relationship wise because he already took her as such.

The Catholic church tries to hide all this because they feel that if Mary and Joseph would of had sex and bore other children it would be against her deity they place on here, and the virginity.

Having sex with her husband Joseph later on would not have changed the fact that she was a virgin when she had Jesus.
They are still humans, and the Lord our God does say to be fruitful and multiple.
 
Allin

Allin

Banned
#82
Jan 6, 2012
1,233
10
0
#82
Perhaps, Kenneth and Damombomb, you shouldn't expend effort with Maynard or anyone defending the Catholic church. If you're patiently sharing truth, then that's a good thing; expending effort or energy to convince or persuade is another thing.

The Catholic Bible did not remove any of the facts about Mary and Jesus, but Catholics still believe the Catholic church over their own Bible. If you talk to someone whose religious rules and beliefs are full of contradictions, it's wise to discern that the person cannot be pried from the grip of religion nor do they want to be.

People take pride in beliefs/mindsets; the last thing we naturally want to do is relinquish beliefs that make us feel proud or special, therefore, we might perceive contrary beliefs to ours as attacks. Sharing the truth patiently over time can have a good effect, but it's good to be discerning about who to respond to and who not to respond to.
 
Maynard

Maynard

Banned
#83
Jan 17, 2013
612
19
18
#83
kennethcadwell said:
It says in the KJV he did not know her tell she gave birth to Jesus. To know some one as in given in this scripture biblically means in the sexual sense.
Click to expand...
Discussed already yesterday,, twice.
I wish you folks would read before you rant.

Scripture’s statement that Joseph "knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn" would NOT necessarily mean they did "know" each other (have sex) after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English.
A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:


  • 1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, "he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.")
  • 1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
  • 2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
  • Same goes for "knew her not until she brought forth". It means simply that they had not had sex up to a certain point, w/o determining anything concrete after that.

"Until"

As demonstrated throughout scripture by the use of the word "until", Matthew 1:25's "until" is no proof whatsoever that Joseph and Mary ever had a sexual relationship.
 
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