Christ is God

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Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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Correct! Our promise from God is to inherent the land. There are no scriptures in the bible that say we go to heaven. To say we go to heaven is mixing Greek pagan philosophy with Christianity, it is false.
In the Bible Jesus says that where he is we will be. So you tell us where he will be.
 

Endoscopy

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Oct 13, 2017
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Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. He was the one who communicated with Moses in the burning bush, who came to Jonah, Samuel, Abraham etc He was of the same substance of His Father YHVH When he was begotten. Jesus then placed himself in the Virgin Mary and became a man, 100 percent man, but still the Son of God. He is seated at the right hand of His Father in heaven as a man. He will return to earth as a man.

1 Cor 8v6 There is one God The Father from whom came all things and for whom we exist and there is one lord Jesus Christ through whom came all things and through whom we exist.

Everything was created through Jesus and for Jesus.

There is one mediator between God and man, the man Jesus Christ.

No one has seen the Father except the only begotten Son.

Jesus was begotten on day one of the creation week, that is why He was with the Father in the beginning.

The Father and Jesus are not one in the same person. They are one in objective and thinking, in love for people etc. but not one person. To think they are part of a trinity is ridiculous and unbiblical.
Your theology is all screwed up!!

John 10 NIV
22 Then came the Festival of Dedication at Jerusalem. It was winter, 23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe. The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
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Correct! Our promise from God is to inherent the land. There are no scriptures in the bible that say we go to heaven. To say we go to heaven is mixing Greek pagan philosophy with Christianity, it is false.
When the various levels of heaven are mentioned in the Word, the Hebrew original reference is to the Skies or the Heavens..HaShamaim.

As for linguistic references, please allow for what our Father is teaching us andnot what the Greeks or the Hebes are writing in their limited language usage… Words are actually verbalized and spelled out renditions of concepts, and the concepts of God are not the concepts of men.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
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Exodus 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I Am That I Am: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I Am hath sent me unto you.

John 18:5-6
5 They answered Him, “Jesus of Nazareth.”

Jesus said to them, “I am He.” And Judas, who betrayed Him, also stood with them.

6 Now when He said to them, “I am He, they drew back and fell to the ground.
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
4,028
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When the various levels of heaven are mentioned in the Word, the Hebrew original reference is to the Skies or the Heavens..HaShamaim.

As for linguistic references, please allow for what our Father is teaching us andnot what the Greeks or the Hebes are writing in their limited language usage… Words are actually verbalized and spelled out renditions of concepts, and the concepts of God are not the concepts of men.
An issue with the Greek language of the Bible is it is not koine Greek but koine Judeo Greek. Koine meaning common spoken. When the Jews use a language they modify the language bringing in Hebrew words and concepts. An example today is Yiddish which is Judeo German. The only language this doesn't happen to is English. That is because of how English came about. Originally in England the Celts moved in. Then the Romans invaded bringing Latin. Going into medieval times the Saxons invaded bringing German. Last the Angles came bringing French. Thus English is a mixture of all of these languages. This is why we have rules, exceptions to the rules and exceptions to the exceptions. No other language has this mess. They have rules only. Letters are pronounced one way. In English we have to memorize the sound of the letters for each word.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,465
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An issue with the Greek language of the Bible is it is not koine Greek but koine Judeo Greek. Koine meaning common spoken. When the Jews use a language they modify the language bringing in Hebrew words and concepts. An example today is Yiddish which is Judeo German. The only language this doesn't happen to is English. That is because of how English came about. Originally in England the Celts moved in. Then the Romans invaded bringing Latin. Going into medieval times the Saxons invaded bringing German. Last the Angles came bringing French. Thus English is a mixture of all of these languages. This is why we have rules, exceptions to the rules and exceptions to the exceptions. No other language has this mess. They have rules only. Letters are pronounced one way. In English we have to memorize the sound of the letters for each word.
I am not the brightest bulb in the chandelier, however I do not know how you are able to say this Hebrew influence is not applied to English. Names alone are most commonly from the Hebrew, albeit transliterated. My name, Jack, may be said to be from Jacob, Jamaes and or Johathan, all from the Hebrew. Elizabet, Sarah, Mary 8Mariam), and so many more are from the Hebrew, again transliterations. I will not pull out the linguistics card here, but a simple study of etymolgy in our language shouts of all of its influences from pre-Sanskrit to the languages you cited, to modern Greek, and more.
Languages today are the sum total of the history of man, in my faith, since Babel.
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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I am not the brightest bulb in the chandelier, however I do not know how you are able to say this Hebrew influence is not applied to English. Names alone are most commonly from the Hebrew, albeit transliterated. My name, Jack, may be said to be from Jacob, Jamaes and or Johathan, all from the Hebrew. Elizabet, Sarah, Mary 8Mariam), and so many more are from the Hebrew, again transliterations. I will not pull out the linguistics card here, but a simple study of etymolgy in our language shouts of all of its influences from pre-Sanskrit to the languages you cited, to modern Greek, and more.
Languages today are the sum total of the history of man, in my faith, since Babel.
The issue is the Jews had no reason to implement a special version of English to bring in their concepts. The one big advantage of English is any concept can be brought into English without creating a seperate version of the language unlike other languages.
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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There are versions of other languages being modified to bring in Jewish concepts. Yiddish is Judeo German. There are other languages where this has happened. Due to the origin of English from Celtic, Latin , German and French the English language makes it easy to bring in other concepts without modifying it. In the new testament Paul had a problem with bringing in a Jewish concept into Greek. He tried phrasing it a couple of ways before giving up and complaining about it. Here is a discussion about it.

Do Paul and James Disagree About “Faith”?
By Dr. Yeshaya Gruber
October 22, 2018

The question of “faith vs. works” has often baffled—and even enraged—biblical interpreters. Different Christian groups (Catholic, Orthodox, Protestant, etc.) proclaim different views, sometimes fighting with each other over the correct interpretation. All of them contrast their own position with the “old” Jewish way of thinking. So where does all this conflict and confusion come from?

An apparent contradiction lies at the root of the controversy. Saul/Paul of Tarsus writes, “For we hold that one is justified by faith (πίστις; pistis) apart from works of the Law” (Romans 3:28, ESV; cf. Rom 5:1; Gal 2:16, 3:11, 3:24). But then Jacob/James of Jerusalem says, “You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith (πίστις; pistis) alone” (2:24, ESV). Some Christian theologians take one side or the other in this “debate,” while others try to show that the apparent contradiction is not really a contradiction.

Yet for all the argument and discussion, one of the most important factors is often neglected completely. Both Jacob/James and Saul/Paul were actually first-century Jews who lived in a hybrid Hebrew-Greek environment. Like others in this situation, they struggled to express and discuss Hebrew ideas in the Greek language. Just before Jacob/James states that becoming “just” involves “works” rather than merely “faith alone,” he exclaims, “You foolish fellow, can’t you see that ‘faith’ apart from works is useless?!” (2:20). This outburst reflects the fact – difficult to convey in Greek – that the Hebrew word for “faith” (אמונה; emunah) means a lifestyle of steadfast reliability.

Saul/Paul was no less frustrated with his audience when it came to understanding the Jewish idea of “faith” – he even calls the Galatians “mindless” (Gal 3:1) with regard to this topic. In context, he was arguing that the way to be considered “just” is to live a lifestyle of steadfast reliability in the way of truth, and that this doesn’t depend on whether one is Jewish and follows the Torah of Moses, or is a Gentile and therefore not obliged to keep all the same commandments.

Both authors found themselves limited by the language they had to use. Each chose a different angle or tack in employing Greek words to express Hebrew/Jewish ideas. This created the impression of a major contradiction, one that would even cause religious schisms! Thankfully, today we have many tools for understanding the original Jewish-Greek context and decoding the deep meanings of such ancient letters.
 

Petercito

Active member
May 21, 2019
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Exodus 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I Am That I Am: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I Am hath sent me unto you.

John 18:5-6
5 They answered Him, “Jesus of Nazareth.”

Jesus said to them, “I am He.” And Judas, who betrayed Him, also stood with them.

6 Now when He said to them, “I am He, they drew back and fell to the ground.
''HE'' is not in the original text. It is just ''I am''
 

Petercito

Active member
May 21, 2019
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Your theology is all screwed up!!

John 10 NIV
22 Then came the Festival of Dedication at Jerusalem. It was winter, 23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe. The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”
Yes they are one in objective and in love. They are not one person. The bible never says that.

Gen 2v24 That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become ONE FLESH [ONE BODY]
Also Mat 19v5 Mark 10v8 Ephe 5v31

Are you married? Are you one person with your wife? Am I talking to or your wife? Is that ridiculous? Oh yeah. You misunderstand the verse.

Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’ ”

Is Jesus ascending to Himself?
Did Jesus raise Himself from the grave? The bible says repeatedly it was the Father who raised Him.

Jesus said He had no power of Himself to perform the miracles but it was the Father doing the miracles through Him.

For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself.


John 5v30 “I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.

The Father has His own will and Jesus has His own will. They cannot be one person.

Jesus is 100 percent man. But still the Only Begotten Son Of God.


1 Tim 6v13 In the sight of God, who gives life to everything,

1 Tim 6v16 [The Father] who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. To him be honor and might forever. Amen.
Also Acts 17v25 .....and more in the OT.

Only The Father is immortal. He is the one who gives life to ALL things, including Jesus.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Only The Father is immortal
Another proof Christ is God, then :)

Hebrews 7:15-16
And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest, Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
 

posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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John 8:23-24
And He said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world. I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins.
 

Petercito

Active member
May 21, 2019
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28
When the various levels of heaven are mentioned in the Word, the Hebrew original reference is to the Skies or the Heavens..HaShamaim.

As for linguistic references, please allow for what our Father is teaching us andnot what the Greeks or the Hebes are writing in their limited language usage… Words are actually verbalized and spelled out renditions of concepts, and the concepts of God are not the concepts of men.
If it's in the bible it is to be understood by men otherwise it would be illogical not to.

The promise to Abraham and his seed was the ''land inheritance'' So irrespective of the word heaven...which can refer to the sky etc....No one flies away to heaven or to put it another way after dying lives on in a place outside of earth. No one is in some place skipping and holding hands with Jesus floating on fluffy clouds surrounded by rainbows.

We are promised the land inheritance after the resurrection, Until then if you die you are dead.
Just one example

Daniel 12v13 “As for you, go your way till the end. You will rest, and then at the end of the days you will rise to receive your allotted inheritance.”

No one has ascended to heaven except the son of man..

Acts 2v29 Fellow Israelites, I can tell you confidently that the patriarch David died and was buried, and his tomb is here to this day.

v34 For David did not ascend to heaven,
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
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John 8:23-24
And He said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world. I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I AM, ye shall die in your sins.
Interesting additions to that:

1. The correct translation should be "..if you don't believe i'm he..."
2. It was a reference to:

Isa 43:
9All the nations gather together
and the peoples assemble.
Which of their gods foretold this
and proclaimed to us the former things?
Let them bring in their witnesses to prove they were right,
so that others may hear and say, “It is true.”

10“You are my witnesses,” declares the Lord,
“and my servant whom I have chosen,
so that you may know and believe me
and understand that I am he.
Before me no god was formed,
nor will there be one after me.

11I, even I, am the Lord,
and apart from me there is no savior.
12I have revealed and saved and proclaimed—
I, and not some foreign god among you.
You are my witnesses,” declares the Lord, “that I am God.

13Yes, and from ancient days I am he.
No one can deliver out of my hand.
When I act, who can reverse it?”

He is the savior but the most interesting thing here is that he is not a foreign god but God amongst people/witnesses.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
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One thousand years, then what?
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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The correct translation should be "..if you don't believe i'm he..."
No its not. The 'he' is not in the Greek, and the I AM is ego eime, two words which both individually mean 'I am' - Jesus puts these together literally saying 'I, I am' or 'I am that I am'
 

Endoscopy

Senior Member
Oct 13, 2017
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Yes they are one in objective and in love. They are not one person. The bible never says that.

Gen 2v24 That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become ONE FLESH [ONE BODY]
Also Mat 19v5 Mark 10v8 Ephe 5v31

Are you married? Are you one person with your wife? Am I talking to or your wife? Is that ridiculous? Oh yeah. You misunderstand the verse.

Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’ ”

Is Jesus ascending to Himself?
Did Jesus raise Himself from the grave? The bible says repeatedly it was the Father who raised Him.

Jesus said He had no power of Himself to perform the miracles but it was the Father doing the miracles through Him.

For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself.


John 5v30 “I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.

The Father has His own will and Jesus has His own will. They cannot be one person.

Jesus is 100 percent man. But still the Only Begotten Son Of God.


1 Tim 6v13 In the sight of God, who gives life to everything,

1 Tim 6v16 [The Father] who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. To him be honor and might forever. Amen.
Also Acts 17v25 .....and more in the OT.

Only The Father is immortal. He is the one who gives life to ALL things, including Jesus.
Jesus was 100% man and 100% God!!

John 10 NIV
22 Then came the Festival of Dedication at Jerusalem. It was winter, 23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe. The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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If it's in the bible it is to be understood by men otherwise it would be illogical not to.
per human logic. which is inherently futile -- 'He knows the thoughts of men, that they are vain' ((Ps. 94:11))

but the scripture itself tells you that you cannot fathom it:

My mouth will declare Your righteousness and Your salvation all day long,
though I cannot know their full measure.
(Psalm 71:15)
Thy knowledge is too wonderful for me: it is so high that I cannot attain unto it.
(Psalm 139:6)