Are we in the end times ?

[TheDivineWatermark]

First of all, the text does NOT say "will become." The word in the Greek is egenonto (εγενοντο). It is a 3 person plural 2 Aorist middle deponent. It is translated as HAVE BECOME. The kingdoms of the world being made into the Kingdom of "our Lord and of our Christ" was a PAST event in Revelation 11. Whatever that verse means, the timing of it falls within those things which were in JOHN'S day to SHORTLY take place. [...]

Consider the following:

While I agree with your explanation of what Revelation 11's grammar is saying ("HAVE BECOME"), though not your application of it (which hopefully my view will become evident with the following part of my post...), I must disagree that Revelation 1:1 and 22:6 use the adverb "SHORTLY [adverb--or any other adverb like immediateLY, quickLY or soon--adverbs]";

Instead, those verses say, "... things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (so this is saying that the "future" aspects of the Book--1:1[7:3]/22:6 / 1:19c / 4:1--are "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"... NOT that they would start immediately / soon / shortly [as in the Preterist viewpoint] NOR that they would unfold over the course of some near-2000 [or more] years since the first century [as the Historicists have it], but that, when they start, they will "take place, or come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"

[...] It is a PAST event according to Revelation 11:15 and not a future event.

Per what I put in the above, I would say it is "past" ONLY from the perspective of the point in time that Rev11:15-19 is speaking about (i.e. the "7th Trumpet / 3rd Woe [/1st Vial]" point in the chronology... that being, of yet "future" things), which I see as somewhere around 3/4 of the way through the "future," specific, LIMITED time-period, [commonly so-called] tribulation period, which time-period leads UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19.

Some of the reasons I see this as yet "future" is because of the "chronology" issues in His Olivet Discourse...

...where "the beginning of birth pangs" (EQUIVALENT the "SEALS" of Rev 6--which are a part of the "in quickness [noun]" time-period) as explained by Luke 21 shows how "the beginning of birth pangs (per Lk21:12) basically says that the 70ad events (vv.12-24) must come "BEFORE ALL THESE [before all these beginning of birth pangs (aka the seals) spelled out in vv.8-11--parallel to Matt24:4-8 and Mk13:5-8];

This means that the 70ad events (vv.12-24) must take place PRIOR TO "the beginning of birth pangs" (aka the seals) and these "seals" are a part of the "in quickness [noun]" things / time-period which immediately precedes and LEADS UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19...

... thus I cannot escape coming to the conclusion that those have not yet taken place (the "seals" plus then also the trumpets&vials")... and Paul confirms this same sequence in both 1Th5:1-3 (where he speaks of the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" that COMES UPON a woman, i.e. Matt24:4 / Mk13:5's "G5100 - tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE' ['a certain one' bringing deception]" aka, what we now know as "SEAL #1" [which, according to the SEQUENCE issues must come/take place AFTER the 70ad events])... and in 2Th, where Paul provides further confirmation of these [same or related] "sequence" issues.

I realize it is a tedious study ^ , but I find that many people gloss past this issue (re: the "sequence" issues in His Olivet Discourse), as well as coupling that matter with their insistence that Rev1:1 / 22:6 says "SHORTLY [adverbs]" rather than the proper "in quickness [noun]"... thus overall coming to incorrect conclusions.



My two cents. Thank you for hearing me out.

 

[The_Unnamed_Servent]

Consider this, the Book of Revelation, aka the Revelation of Jesus Christ, is a prophetic message carried through the church as a warning to the final church. This church will witness the revelation of Jesus Christ. When He says soon, He means soon (within 7 years time for them during the 70th week).

I already know that Preterists will disagree but to them what then is the point of the Book of Revelation. If this all happened in 70AD then what's the point of telling people after the fact of the very thing they just lived through? Is all prophecy complete? That was one of the conditions of Daniel's 70th week (to put an end to prophesy/visions).

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

Jesus used the expression "THIS generation" TWENTY times. He NEVER meant anything other than HIS contemporaries. Most people accept "this generation" of Matthew 23 to be those of that generation in which Jesus then lived--the generation of those apostate Jews He was condemning. When did Jesus indicate in any way that He was changing that meaning in Matthew 24:34? He did not. Jesus did NOT say or even suggest that "this generation" meant "the generation that will be alive when the Antichrist is revealed." To think such a thing is to place one's preconceived ideas over the teachings of Scripture! THIS generation means exactly that--THIS generation.

Consider:

Luke 21:32's (use of the phrase): "This generation shall not pass away TILL ALL shall have taken place," must necessarily INCLUDE even the two "of-lengthy-duration" items that verse 24 had already just spoken of: 1) "and they shall be led away captive into all the nations" and 2) "and Jerusalem shall be TRODDEN DOWN of the Gentiles [UNTIL]..." (and we know that this latter one connects with things which ALSO will not CONCLUDE until Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19 [per Rev11:2's use of the same Greek word for "trodden down"], because of also Rev17:8's "[when they behold the beast] that was, AND IS NOT, and yet shall be [future tense]"

 

[Beckie]

When He says soon, He means soon (within 7 years time for them during the 70th week).

when did Jesus tell you this ?

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

When He says soon, He means soon (within 7 years time for them during the 70th week).

I agree with the bold ^

(I disagree that the word "soon [adverb--or any adverbs, in that place]" was used in 1:1 / 22:6 rather than the "noun" "IN QUICKNESS"--The word in v.3 ['near' / 'at hand' - adverb] I believe is a slightly differing matter having to do with what is being "written" in this Book, at the time written = ) , if that makes sense, lol)

 

[The_Unnamed_Servent]

when did Jesus tell you this ?

Use logic. He clearly wasn't talking to the 1st-century church because they didn't see these things happening on the earth. A major character is missing at 90AD (the whore of Babylon). She's the economic power of wickedness. Also no Israel in the world. All of these things have to fall in place before His message makes any sense.

Please don't ignore my question:

If this all happened in 70AD then what's the point of telling people after the fact of the very thing they just lived through? Is all prophecy complete?

 

[Beckie]

Use logic. He clearly wasn't talking to the 1st-century church because they didn't see these things happening on the earth. A major character is missing at 90AD (the whore of Babylon). She's the economic power of wickedness. Also no Israel in the world. All of these things have to fall in place before His message makes any sense.

Please don't ignore my question:

Maybe the same reason we have the OT

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

I already know that Preterists will disagree but to them what then is the point of the Book of Revelation. If this all happened in 70AD then what's the point of telling people after the fact of the very thing they just lived through? Is all prophecy complete? That was one of the conditions of Daniel's 70th week (to put an end to prophesy/visions).

Most Preterists believe "[The] Revelation" was written before 70ad (not after).

But this still doesn't jive with the "sequence" issues of His Olivet Discourse (let alone the prophecy in Daniel 9:24-27 which is also spelled out "sequentially"), not to mention a number of other "UNTIL / TILL" passages (relating to "Israel" [/Israel's "future"], like Hosea 5:14-6:3 for one example of A NUMBER OF THEM).

 

[Beckie]

Use logic. He clearly wasn't talking to the 1st-century church because they didn't see these things happening on the earth. A major character is missing at 90AD (the whore of Babylon). She's the economic power of wickedness. Also no Israel in the world. All of these things have to fall in place before His message makes any sense.

Please don't ignore my question:

How about using the word of God instead of man logic?

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

"37Jerusalem, Jerusalem, killing the prophets and stoning those having been sent to her! How often would I have gathered together your children, the way in which a hen gathers together her chicks under the wings, and you were not willing! 38Behold, your house is left to you desolate! 39For I say to you, you shall not see Me from now UNTIL you say, ‘Blessed is the One coming in the name of the Lord.’c” " - Matthew 23:37-39





Psalm 118:26 -

"Blessed is he who comes in the name of the LORD. From the house of the LORD we bless you."





["blindness / a hardening... UNTIL"]

 

[The_Unnamed_Servent]

Most Preterists believe "[The] Revelation" was written before 70ad (not after).

Thanks for clearing that up. Yeah, that would confuse things.

But this still doesn't jive with the "sequence" issues of His Olivet Discourse (let alone the prophecy in Daniel 9:24-27 which is also spelled out "sequentially"), not to mention a number of other "UNTIL / TILL" passages (relating to "Israel" [/Israel's "future"], like Hosea 5:14-6:3 for one example of A NUMBER OF THEM).

Look closely at the Olivet Discourse and you'll see it matches Revelation 6-7 (breaking seals) perfectly.
1. Seal = False Christs = Matt. 24:5 = White horse = Rev. 6:2 (the bow w/out arrows can also refer to a covenent; like God's rainbow after the flood)
2. Seal = Wars and rumors of wars = Matt. 24:6= Red Horse = Rev. 6:3-4
3. Seal = Famines in the land = Matt. 24:7 = Black Horse = Rev. 6:5-6
4. Seal = Tribulation/death = Matt. 24:9, 21= Ashen Horse = Rev. 6:7-8
5. Seal = For sake of elect it's cut short = Matt. 24:22= Martyrs under the alter = Rev. 6:9-11
6. Seal = Sun/moon darken = Matt. 24:29= Darkness/terror = Rev. 6:12-17

These prophecies line up....from my understanding, Daniel 27 refers to the final 70th week. At the midpoint He causes Satan to put an end to these unholy sacrifices which is the 4th Seal of Rev. (Abomination of Desolation). But imo, Daniel 9:24-26 is fulfilled yet can come again.

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

^ @The_Unnamed_Servent , I agree that the SEALS ARE "the beginning of birth PANGS" and I said as much in my Post #341 at the top of this page (and that they along with the Trumpet and Vials take place within the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time period which IS "7 yrs"... the "7 yrs" leading UP TO Christ's "RETURN" to the earth at Rev19).

The issue becomes (at least in the minds of the Preterists) was Revelation written BEFORE or AFTER the events of 70ad. I named one hint (or two), but there are OTHER hints showing that it was written AFTER the 70ad events (Matt22:7 AND THEN 22:8 is just ONE OTHER "sequence" issue actually spelling this out, also... There are MANY MORE.)

 

[LetGodBeTrue]

Consider the following:

While I agree with your explanation of what Revelation 11's grammar is saying ("HAVE BECOME"), though not your application of it (which hopefully my view will become evident with the following part of my post...), I must disagree that Revelation 1:1 and 22:6 use the adverb "SHORTLY [adverb--or any other adverb like immediateLY, quickLY or soon--adverbs]";

Instead, those verses say, "... things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (so this is saying that the "future" aspects of the Book--1:1[7:3]/22:6 / 1:19c / 4:1--are "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"... NOT that they would start immediately / soon / shortly [as in the Preterist viewpoint] NOR that they would unfold over the course of some near-2000 [or more] years since the first century [as the Historicists have it], but that, when they start, they will "take place, or come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"



Per what I put in the above, I would say it is "past" ONLY from the perspective of the point in time that Rev11:15-19 is speaking about (i.e. the "7th Trumpet / 3rd Woe [/1st Vial]" point in the chronology... that being, of yet "future" things), which I see as somewhere around 3/4 of the way through the "future," specific, LIMITED time-period, [commonly so-called] tribulation period, which time-period leads UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19.

Some of the reasons I see this as yet "future" is because of the "chronology" issues in His Olivet Discourse...

...where "the beginning of birth pangs" (EQUIVALENT the "SEALS" of Rev 6--which are a part of the "in quickness [noun]" time-period) as explained by Luke 21 shows how "the beginning of birth pangs (per Lk21:12) basically says that the 70ad events (vv.12-24) must come "BEFORE ALL THESE [before all these beginning of birth pangs (aka the seals) spelled out in vv.8-11--parallel to Matt24:4-8 and Mk13:5-8];

This means that the 70ad events (vv.12-24) must take place PRIOR TO "the beginning of birth pangs" (aka the seals) and these "seals" are a part of the "in quickness [noun]" things / time-period which immediately precedes and LEADS UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19...

... thus I cannot escape coming to the conclusion that those have not yet taken place (the "seals" plus then also the trumpets&vials")... and Paul confirms this same sequence in both 1Th5:1-3 (where he speaks of the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" that COMES UPON a woman, i.e. Matt24:4 / Mk13:5's "G5100 - tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE' ['a certain one' bringing deception]" aka, what we now know as "SEAL #1" [which, according to the SEQUENCE issues must come/take place AFTER the 70ad events])... and in 2Th, where Paul provides further confirmation of these [same or related] "sequence" issues.

I realize it is a tedious study ^ , but I find that many people gloss past this issue (re: the "sequence" issues in His Olivet Discourse), as well as coupling that matter with their insistence that Rev1:1 / 22:6 says "SHORTLY [adverbs]" rather than the proper "in quickness [noun]"... thus overall coming to incorrect conclusions.



My two cents. Thank you for hearing me out.

DW, if you agree that the verse says "have become," why do you have problems with my application. Clearly, the timing is PAST and not FUTURE in Revelation 11:15!

Also, I can go through the uses of the Greek word in Revelation 1:3 and 6:10 and they would clearly demonstrate that the word means SHORTLY. To reach that proper understanding, it is helpful to unite that word with the Greek term in verse 3--engus. It means NEAR. John was shown those things which were to SHORTLY take place; the time was NEAR. Even if you want to use some unjustifiable, questionable, and obscure understanding of tachos ("in quickness"), you cannot get around the fact that any "quickness" of events was NEAR.

Tachos occurs 8 times in the NT. In only of one those instances does it mean "in quickness" (Acts 22:18). But for it to mean that, however, a preposition is required. Where is the preposition "in" (en--Greek) in Revelation 1:3 and 6:10? There is none. It is not found in the Greek in those verses. Your incorrect approach would render those verses as: "John was shown those things which must quickness take place." That makes no sense because it is NOT what John wrote.

Consider Acts 22:18 which can be translated "in quickness." In this verse, we find the Greek preposition EN (in). This justifies the translation "in quickness." Revelation 1:3 and 6:10 contain NO preposition allowing for a translation of "in quickness." The verses CLEARLY say SHORTLY. It is often translated as SOON.

ALL of the events of John's vision were in HIS day to SHORTLY take place; the time for their fulfillment was then NEAR. That is what the Scriptures say. You cannot accept that because you are not willing to re-evaluate your preconceived ideas and the tenets of your paradigm in light of clear teaching from God's Word. I am sorry to have to be so bold, but you will ALWAYS struggle with coordinating the numerous and CLEAR time indicators with your futurist concepts. They are at odds and always will be. TIME dictates NATURE. In other words, when the Bible clearly indicates (and it does in many, many verses in the NT) that something is to happen within a certain time frame, it is incumbent upon the student of God's Word to assure that his understanding of events and the NATURE of those events align with that setting. In preterism, NATURE fits the TIMING. There is no conflict that demands manipulating simple words.

 

[LetGodBeTrue]

Consider the following:

While I agree with your explanation of what Revelation 11's grammar is saying ("HAVE BECOME"), though not your application of it (which hopefully my view will become evident with the following part of my post...), I must disagree that Revelation 1:1 and 22:6 use the adverb "SHORTLY [adverb--or any other adverb like immediateLY, quickLY or soon--adverbs]";

Instead, those verses say, "... things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (so this is saying that the "future" aspects of the Book--1:1[7:3]/22:6 / 1:19c / 4:1--are "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"... NOT that they would start immediately / soon / shortly [as in the Preterist viewpoint] NOR that they would unfold over the course of some near-2000 [or more] years since the first century [as the Historicists have it], but that, when they start, they will "take place, or come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"



Per what I put in the above, I would say it is "past" ONLY from the perspective of the point in time that Rev11:15-19 is speaking about (i.e. the "7th Trumpet / 3rd Woe [/1st Vial]" point in the chronology... that being, of yet "future" things), which I see as somewhere around 3/4 of the way through the "future," specific, LIMITED time-period, [commonly so-called] tribulation period, which time-period leads UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19.

Some of the reasons I see this as yet "future" is because of the "chronology" issues in His Olivet Discourse...

...where "the beginning of birth pangs" (EQUIVALENT the "SEALS" of Rev 6--which are a part of the "in quickness [noun]" time-period) as explained by Luke 21 shows how "the beginning of birth pangs (per Lk21:12) basically says that the 70ad events (vv.12-24) must come "BEFORE ALL THESE [before all these beginning of birth pangs (aka the seals) spelled out in vv.8-11--parallel to Matt24:4-8 and Mk13:5-8];

This means that the 70ad events (vv.12-24) must take place PRIOR TO "the beginning of birth pangs" (aka the seals) and these "seals" are a part of the "in quickness [noun]" things / time-period which immediately precedes and LEADS UP TO Christ's Second Coming to the earth Rev19...

... thus I cannot escape coming to the conclusion that those have not yet taken place (the "seals" plus then also the trumpets&vials")... and Paul confirms this same sequence in both 1Th5:1-3 (where he speaks of the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" that COMES UPON a woman, i.e. Matt24:4 / Mk13:5's "G5100 - tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE' ['a certain one' bringing deception]" aka, what we now know as "SEAL #1" [which, according to the SEQUENCE issues must come/take place AFTER the 70ad events])... and in 2Th, where Paul provides further confirmation of these [same or related] "sequence" issues.

I realize it is a tedious study ^ , but I find that many people gloss past this issue (re: the "sequence" issues in His Olivet Discourse), as well as coupling that matter with their insistence that Rev1:1 / 22:6 says "SHORTLY [adverbs]" rather than the proper "in quickness [noun]"... thus overall coming to incorrect conclusions.



My two cents. Thank you for hearing me out.

 

[Magenta]

one great Antichrist

What is your scripture support for "one great antichrist"

2 Thess 2:3b ... that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction. 4 He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God’s temple, proclaiming himself to be God. 5 Don’t you remember that when I was with you I used to tell you these things? 6 And now you know what is holding him back, so that he may be revealed at the proper time. 7 For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so till he is taken out of the way. 8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will overthrow with the breath of his mouth and destroy by the splendor of his coming. 9 The coming of the lawless one will be in accordance with how Satan works. He will use all sorts of displays of power through signs and wonders that serve the lie, 10 and all the ways that wickedness deceives those who are perishing. They perish because they refused to love the truth and so be saved.

 

[LetGodBeTrue]

DW, if you agree that Revelation 11:15 says “HAVE BECOME,” why do you disagree with my application. Clearly, the action is PAST at the time of John’s writing and not FUTURE.

Also, you cannot make Revelation 1:1 and 22:6 say “in quickness.” The Greek word is tachos. It is found 8 times in the NT. The only justified rendering as “in quickness” occurs in Acts 22:18 where it reads “Go in quickness.” The reason it is translated that way is because of the PREPOSITION “in” (en in the Greek) that is found there. The preposition justifies the rendering “in quickness.” However, there is NO preposition in Revelation 1:1 or 22:6. It cannot be translated IN quickness. If you want to insist on seeing it as a noun, you will have to translate the verse: “John was shown those things which were QUICKNESS to take place.” That makes no sense. Without the presence of the preposition, the word is clearly being used as an ADVERB—SHORTLY. This is simple Greek grammar. Also, if you want to demand “quickness” as the rendering, you must align it with the timing of verse 3—the time is NEAR (engus).

ALL of the events of John’s vision were to happen SHORTLY; the time for their fulfillment was then NEAR. This is unambiguous. But futurists cling tenaciously to their paradigm and its tenets concerning the nature of events (e.g., Parousia, Resurrection, Judgment) so that they must ignore, redefine, or otherwise manipulate the NUMEROUS time words. But TIME dictates NATURE. In other words, when the Scriptures plainly indicate that something was to occur SOON or SHORTLY and that its fulfillment was NEAR or AT HAND or ABOUT TO take place, one must make sure that his understanding of the nature of events corresponds. Again, TIME dictates NATURE.

Futurism will always be at odds with the timing of the NT events.

 

[Carry_Your_Name]

That is a TERRIBLE understanding of Hebrews 10:37. Back up to verse 25 and get the context. The writer told those of HIS day that THEY should not neglect the assembling of themselves together. Why? Because THEY were "in a very, very little while" see the "day approaching.

Also, check out Paul's second letter to the Thessalonians. He is speaking to THEM and to not to US. He commends THEM for their faith that is reported throughout the world. Then he comforts them by telling them that THEY will be vindicated and those who are troubling THEM will be persecuted by God in the same measure and manner that THEY persecuted His people (those Thessalonians).

When would this happen? In THEIR lifetime. THEY would be vindicated and given relief AT HIS APPEARING. THEY not WE!

We must stop making everything about us and pay attention to audience relevance and context. In many, many cases as we read the Scriptures, WE are NOT the YE.

The coming in Hebrews 10:37 is not a personal coming to each of us. That is grave violation of the CONTEXT. The people the writer is addressing were being persecuted, imprisoned, had their property taken, etc. Paul compelling them to do lose heart--their faith will be rewarded. That was to happen in their lifetime "in a very, very little while" at the Lord's Parousia. And then THEIR persecutors were going to fall "into the hands of the living God."

If you believe that the Bible is timeless, then it can't be limited to that one group of people in that on particular circumstance, what applies to them must be applied to readers at all times.

 

[Mem]

First of all, the text does NOT say "will become." The word in the Greek is egenonto (εγενοντο). It is a 3 person plural 2 Aorist middle deponent. It is translated as HAVE BECOME. The kingdoms of the world being made into the Kingdom of "our Lord and of our Christ" was a PAST event in Revelation 11. Whatever that verse means, the timing of it falls within those things which were in JOHN'S day to SHORTLY take place. The timing of content of Revelation 11 was THEN AT HAND.

Jesus clearly stated "My kingdom is NOT of this world." Before the Gospel was given to the Gentiles and they were brought into the BODY along with Jews through faith, God had worked through one nation--Israel. People from "all the kingdoms of the world" were brought into God's eternal kingdom which is NOT of this world. It is a PAST event according to Revelation 11:15 and not a future event.

From the standpoint of the present of a vision of what is being said in the future, it does then translate, from the then present to the to now future as, 'will become.'
I'm curious how you might explain Acts 1:11 statement, "Men of Galilee," they said, "why do you stand here looking into the sky? This same Jesus, who has been taken from you into heaven, will come back in the same way you have seen Him go into heaven."

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

Also, you cannot make Revelation 1:1 and 22:6 say “in quickness.” The Greek word is tachos. It is found 8 times in the NT. The only justified rendering as “in quickness” occurs in Acts 22:18 where it reads “Go in quickness.” The reason it is translated that way is because of the PREPOSITION “in” (en in the Greek) that is found there. The preposition justifies the rendering “in quickness.” However, there is NO preposition in Revelation 1:1 or 22:6. It cannot be translated IN quickness. If you want to insist on seeing it as a noun, you will have to translate the verse: “John was shown those things which were QUICKNESS to take place.” That makes no sense. Without the presence of the preposition, the word is clearly being used as an ADVERB—SHORTLY. This is simple Greek grammar.

That is what I am saying I see in at least five sources I'm looking at, in front of me

These three online all have "G1722 G5034" (in [/en - G1722] quickness [tachei / taxei - G5034]... which could also legit be translated: "with [G1722] speed [noun - G5034]," as some have it [or "in speed"]... carrying the same meaning as "in quickness" which I spelled out in that previous post [Post #341]):

1)--Bible Hub - Rev 1:1 "G1722 G5034" - https://biblehub.com/text/revelation/1-1.htm
(same as in 22:6 - https://biblehub.com/text/revelation/22-6.htm )


2)--Blue Letter Bible - Rev1:1 "G1722 G5034" - https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/rev/1/1/ss1/s_1168001
(same as in 22:6 - https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/rev/22/6/ss1/s_1189006 )


3), 4), 5) ... and in three hard copy interlinears I have always within reach of my desk here, these show the same thing ^ in the GREEK:
"en taxei" or "en tachei" ... that is, "G1722 G5034 [en tachei / taxei]" next to each other under the Greek words (in both Rev1:1 and 22:6). [underline mine]





So, I'm not sure what you are seeing (or perhaps are not seeing ). = )

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

so that they must ignore, redefine, or otherwise manipulate the NUMEROUS time words.

That's what I am always saying that I see others [other viewpoints] doing (rather than it being the "futurist" viewpoint supposedly doing this). = )





[note to readers: see again my Post #359, just above this one; See also the SAME set of words used also in both Luke 18:8 and in Romans 16:20 - "G1722 G5034" ("in quickness [noun]")]