But since then Easter became a Christian holiday from early times, and was identified with Pascha (Passover + the Feast of Unleavened Bread).Easter was a Roman holiday which Herod observed
But since then Easter became a Christian holiday from early times, and was identified with Pascha (Passover + the Feast of Unleavened Bread).Easter was a Roman holiday which Herod observed
Where is that in Scripture?Yes, it could be...it can only be one or none...
Where is the evidence that the reformers rejected one line of text? Were they even aware of its existence?KJV
there are only two lines of texts that all versions are using.
One was rejected by the reformers all through History and the other is what the KJV is translated from.
Modern translations are mostly using the condemned rejected texts and giving the readers elusive, sneaky lies that these texts want to promote.
Truth is independent of translations, particularly those in English. Truth existed before English existed.Salvation isn't determined by which bible you read but the truth can be determined by which version you read, and the truth is what sets us free.
Where is that in Scripture?
Most of the Jews when Jesus was on the earth were using a Greek translation of the OT Hebrew. The Jews had lost their Hebrew language due to the over 400 years of captivity they has endured.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
Could you give us reasons? ThanksHave you ever read a modern English version of the bible? Even the KJV has a NKJV version available.
Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit would be the simplest example I could give. Do you know why the KJV uses Holy Ghost instead of Holy Spirit?
For the cause of Christ
Roger
What of those who cannot handle the truth? Are they not in bondage to the lies?... and the truth is what sets us free.
If that is the case, then why did Luke write Pascha in the Bible, and not Easter?Easter was a Roman holiday which Herod observed
The NIV is God's word.Common sense...if one version is God’s word, then another version that has different words and even different truths cannot be God’s word.
I do not read Arabic or greek, few English folk do, you rely upon the scolarship of others just as I do.
I trust the scholarship of the KJ translators and I trust their theology ... modern translators not so much.
Where is the evidence that the reformers rejected one line of text? Were they even aware of its existence?
Are you aware that there are more than two lines of text? Apparently not.
It's not the words that change in greek [or in German for that matter] it is simply the order. The syntax "You to the door must go = you must go to the door
I did not say translations colours our theology, I said theology colours the translation.
Bishop Wescott who led the work of revising the KJ [the RSV] did not believe in the deity of Jesus Christ and it really comes out in his translation of certain verses ... and lo we have a whole generation of folks now who do not believe in the deity of Christ ... where did they come from?