Hm, this is not correct. I dont need to visualize something what is already as picture thereActually, you do, especially if they are there when you are talking to them.
Hm, this is not correct. I dont need to visualize something what is already as picture thereActually, you do, especially if they are there when you are talking to them.
Maby it depend what you understand umder the term visualisation? When I talk with people i dont rise pictures before my inner eyes about what I talk to them. So when I pray to my heavenly father I dont visualize what i am telling to him.Actually, you do, especially if they are there when you are talking to them.
Ya and I wonder why some here split hairs. 1Cor.2:16 says that "we have the mind of Christ". Now, is that not sufficient?Hm, this is not correct. I dont need to visualize something what is already as picture there![]()
What i see happening is we see ' OUR Father ' being given to Jews in a Jewish manner ,and we say " hey now Hes our Father, so therefore that prayer means now its for us too ' . I see this happening to lots of verses . Yes you can make that nice little connection, but it completely negates the point of the prayer and who its to and how they prayed . The issue with it now, christianity has made it as popular as the B.i.b.l.e song that its become ingrained. Its gets taught in the same ole Sunday school fashion. " Yes this is a template of how we today should pray " , " this is a formula blah blah " and then fill in the blank by who ever is preaching on the ' Lords prayer ' and what it ' really means ' to us , blah , blah...don't you Just love it when the Catholics say it in unison in that lively tone lol .Yes it is. God is my Heavenly Father. I am Abraham's seed and so are you (I hope).
I believe OUR is completely in keeping with who Jesus was giving that prayer to . The ' OUR ' was their way under the OT . I hold that meaning..the biblical meaning. We tend to grab verses and make them western American and name it and claim it .why should a 'Jewish prayer' be different from ours?
shall i rip the Psalms out of my Bible?
Yes we can call God 'Father ' ( Abba ,actually ) OUR is corporate. Thats my Point . OUR in the context Jesus is giving to the Jews is a Jewish ' reference ' OUR , is the context. OUR !! GROUP , CORPORATE, COLLECTIVE . not individual
Yes we can call God 'Father '
I believe OUR is completely in keeping with who Jesus was giving that prayer to . The ' OUR ' was their way under the OT . I hold that meaning..the biblical meaning. We tend to grab verses and make them western American and name it and claim it .
What i see happening is we see ' OUR Father ' being given to Jews in a Jewish manner ,and we say " hey now Hes our Father, so therefore that prayer means now its for us too ' . I see this happening to lots of verses . Yes you can make that nice little connection, but it completely negates the point of the prayer and who its to and how they prayed . The issue with it now, christianity has made it as popular as the B.i.b.l.e song that its become ingrained. Its gets taught in the same ole Sunday school fashion. " Yes this is a template of how we today should pray " , " this is a formula blah blah " and then fill in the blank by who ever is preaching on the ' Lords prayer ' and what it ' really means ' to us , blah , blah...don't you Just love it when the Catholics say it in unison in that lively tone lol .
What i see happening is we see ' OUR Father ' being given to Jews in a Jewish manner
we know prayer isn't for others; it's for God. check.
So you think Jesus is saying" pray like this ' Father...ect ect ect ?are you not reading this in your trusty KJV?
After this manner therefore pray ye (Matthew 6:9) "ye" is plural. therefore "our" is plural. He's speaking to a group - you know, the one we are grafted into?
the same way you just wrote "we"
Paul isn't telling them to pray like this ' OUR father ,blah , blah, blah ,ect "i believe the believers in Galatia were largely not Jewish?
Grace to you and peace from God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ, who gave Himself for our sins, that He might deliver us from this present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father, to whom be glory forever and ever. Amen.
(Galatians 1:3-5)
Your missing my point . Why follow a verse/ verses that were not intended to follow ? No one but Jews were on Jesus mind when he gave it . This is US whilst Jesus gave that prayer .which part of Matthew 6 in particular do you think is inappropriate to pray if you don't have Jewish flesh? "Thy kingdom come" ?
should i instead pray His kingdom not be manifest on earth as it is in heaven, if i'm goyim after the flesh?
i anticipate you'll say 'kingdom' has to do with an earthly kingdom on the throne of David, and neatly brush aside all the things telling us this is a kingdom that blesses the whole earth, filling it with knowledge of Him.
do you anticipate that i will reply with His own words, that His kingdom is not of this world? ((John 18:36)) that there will not be envying and division among us, as there is in the world? that i might mention when they tried to make Him an earthly king, He departed from them? ((John 6:15))
it's probably significant that it says "Thine is the kingdom" instead of "ours is the kingdom"
interesting; never heard anyone arguing to prevent people from praying these things before.
Why do these verses exist ?this is actually a really amazing thing happening here -- it's not like Jews do not know how to pray. they, unlike the goyim, have a few thousand years of history of righteous prayer. so why are His disciples asking Him to teach them how to pray? why did John feel it necessary to teach his disciples a certain way of praying? ((Luke 11)) are they the same?
what has happened - what do they discern - such that they understand they need to learn how to pray all over again? is it really so simple and trivial as 'John taught methods of prayer and they want to be cool like John's disciples' ? ((Luke 11))
why isn't it enough to say, don't be like the hypocrites who pray openly in a big showy way for everyone to hear how pious they are?
why isn't enough to say, don't be like the pagans who vainly repeat mumbo-jumbo like they're casting a spell?
we know prayer isn't for others; it's for God. check.
we know God doesn't hear us just because we say magic words enough times. check.
so in Matthew 6 why does vv. 9-15 exist? and why does this question arise in the first place?
Paul isn't telling them to pray like this ' OUR father ,blah , blah, blah ,ect "
I've never heard any one pray the ' Lords Prayer ' " Father ...its always in unison " OUR Father " Most church services start with this prayer sometimes , just like Jesus taught it. A lovely Western mantra.
Have you wondered why Paul never brings it up for the church ?The Lords prayer, is it not an answer to the question that the disciples had? They asked as a group. "Teach us to pray"
Are we Gods children? Are we disciples of Jesus?
So what is wrong with the Lords prayer to pray as group ore alone?
Have you wondered why Paul never brings this prayer up for the Church ? Not one mention ? Yet we've made it a national treasurethis is actually a really amazing thing happening here -- it's not like Jews do not know how to pray. they, unlike the goyim, have a few thousand years of history of righteous prayer. so why are His disciples asking Him to teach them how to pray? why did John feel it necessary to teach his disciples a certain way of praying? ((Luke 11)) are they the same?
what has happened - what do they discern - such that they understand they need to learn how to pray all over again? is it really so simple and trivial as 'John taught methods of prayer and they want to be cool like John's disciples' ? ((Luke 11))
why isn't it enough to say, don't be like the hypocrites who pray openly in a big showy way for everyone to hear how pious they are?
why isn't enough to say, don't be like the pagans who vainly repeat mumbo-jumbo like they're casting a spell?
we know prayer isn't for others; it's for God. check.
we know God doesn't hear us just because we say magic words enough times. check.
so in Matthew 6 why does vv. 9-15 exist? and why does this question arise in the first place?
Think of the Lord, and using the Lord's prayer as a visualization exercise is two different things.So to you thinking of the Lord is Eastern mysticism, of all the-----I wonder what Christ would say to you?
Are you truly able to discipline your mind so well that you close out any thought that is not abstract? Are you able to only pray with a rote prayer? Do you really want to preach such?
If you were a Christian so you practiced what the Lord tells you to practice, you would encourage, help, and uphold what is of the Lord. Your posts are full of the occult and mysticism, this is a Christian site you are out of line.
We dont know he did, only its not mentioned in one of the letters. But he gave it as answer of an question of his disciples.Have you wondered why Paul never brings it up for the church ?