In "Deformed theology" the"Deformed" does not apply to the person possessing the theology, but to the theology. If I say your tyre is deformed, or your wire mesh fence is deformed, I am not calling you deformed, am I?
Understanding unconditional election
- Thread starter Jordon
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This makes you making reformed faith deformingly acceptable then, and I should accept my reformed faith is deformed
I wonder what helped you choose and decide your perfect excuse
seem like the greek interpretation of Gods wills is pretty much limited to just two nuances then,
Want and desire, in one aspect with this interpretation what God wants isn't what he always gets.
I wonder if this was a decision based of Gods will or human will ?
Would this be comprehending enough ?
So this verse indicates God always gets what he wants
Isaiah 46:10
New International Version
10 I make known the end from the beginning,
from ancient times, what is still to come.
I say, ‘My purpose will stand,
and I will do all that I please.’
Isaiah 46:10
New International Version
10 I make known the end from the beginning,
from ancient times, what is still to come.
I say, ‘My purpose will stand,
and I will do all that I please.’
You are not making much sense, friend. And you don't seem to have read the link I posted. There is what one wants/wills/desires (thelEma) and the plan one decides on to achieve what one wants (BoulEma.
God is love. Love does not insist on always getting its own way.
1Co 13:5
Doth not behave itself unseemly, seeketh not her own, is not easily provoked, thinketh no evil;
So, obviously, God sometimes changes His will/wants/desires/plans, otherwise He would not be love.
changing what he wants to what he insists, is again not in line with God commands we act. because his love is greater is the first thing, and the second thing its not his will that changes, big mistake there, it's our will that gets changed.
KJV Isa 46:10
Declaring (מַגִּיד ,MaGGiYD , hiphil participle) the end (אַחֲרִית , 'aHaRiYT) from the beginning (מֵרֵאשִׁית , MeRe'ShiYTH) , and from ancient times (וּמִקֶּדֶם , W-MiQeDeM , from the east) the things that are not yet done (אֲשֶׁר נַעֲשׂוּ, aSheR Na'aShU, Piel perfective pl.), saying, My counsel shall stand (תָקוּם , ThaQUM, Qal imperfective, is standing/will stand), and I will do (אֶעֱשֶׂה, "e'eSheH, Qal imperfective, I am doing/I will do) all my pleasure:
Isa 46:11
Calling a ravenous bird from the east, the man (אִישׁ , 'iYSh, indefinite) that executeth my counsel (עֲצָתִי , 'eTsaThiY, Noun fem. construct, of my counsel) from a far country: yea, I have spoken (piel perfective) it, I am/will also bringing/bring it to pass (hiphil imperfctive); I have purposed (qal perfective)it, I am/will also doing/do it (Qal imperfective) .
It's easy to manufacture doctrine by wresting verses out of context and finding a translation that sound like it presents your presuppositions.
The underlined nouns that the KJV and NIV translate as definite, are in fact indefinite. The word translated as from ancient times isa word most often meaning east, which makes perfect sense here, since the attack is coming from the east, so why use "from ancient times" instead? So more accurately, YaHWeH is saying,
"[I am God ('eL) I am God ('LoHiYM)] declaring an end from a beginning, and from the east things which are not yet done. saying, "My counsel is standing/shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure; calling a ravenous bird from the east, a man of my counsel from a far country: yea, I have spoken it, I am also bringing it to pass; I have purposed it, I am also doing it.
So, the context is not a general statement of God declaring everything from the beginning of time, but God declaring a new beginning to a plan which He will accomplish, to bring a man of His counsel from the east, who is as a ravenous bird towards Israel. And God is expressing His present determination to bring it to pass. As with all God's prophecies of punishment, they can be rescinded if the person or nation threatened repents. So God is presently putting His plan into action, but He could possibly defer it, if the nation repents, since He responds with mercy to the contrite.
You are still not making sense. Could you read back your own post to yourself, and make sure it makes sense, before posting it? You are posting fragments of sentences piecemeal. It's kind of emblematic of the way you deal with scripture, I guess.
I would say thats probably dew to the fact your using greek reasoning you want what you desire, and want to hear., the Greeks at the time where coming out of paganism, they believed they could make there Gods do things.
But not only that, you have to ask whether your God created English to silence the greek
I've been reading your post, I've read your link, I understand what your saying, but it doesn't sit comfortably with me, since you have many other ideas that dont sit comfortably with me to, and generally because you have just about not acknowledge every thing I've said to you, in a few threads
What you've rejected is not sitting right with me.
Jesus only having desire to do his will doesn't sit right with ne, or Jesus wanting to do his will doesn't sit right with me,
Where as Jesus knowing and doing his will and seeing his father do his will first does.
Jesus taught his pernissive will is persuasive his authoritative will. All part of his sovereign will.
Comprehend is the ability to understand.
And also you may not comprehend something until you have comprehended something else.
Basically you cant be all knowing Like God is, neither can you gain wisdom from him, unless you seek him.
The simple question I'm asking you is this.
Why would Jesus want and desire to do his will ?
Jesus was doing his will from the moment he was born.
He never sinned he performed miracles he healed,
There was no wanting and desiring to do His fathers will about it.
He was doing his fathers will.
His father's will was in him.
The same is true of delusions. You can't believe some delusions before you first accept something else that is another more basic delusion. Which is how people fall into Calvinism IMO.
Why would Jesus want and desire to do his God's will?
Because that was the plan of God when the Son and the Father and the Holy Spirit agreed to sending the Son into the world in the form of a human zygote to grow into a baby boy, and to grow up into a man, who would continue to love all mankind even while He allowed other humans to kill him. The crucifixion was the Son's idea. Why would he not want/desire/will to do what He had planned with the rest of the Godhead to do in order to convince mankind that God really wants to reconcile with mankind? But by the same token, being a human being subject to the horrors of excruciating pain through torture, why would He not also, on an instinctive level, want/desire/ will to avoid going to the cross?
I never asked the question based of delusions, obviously you have a comprehension problem.
I'm not changing the subject to suit your agenda, and it's not getting personal, from me, so why should it be an agenda to for you to get personal to me ?
This thread is about the truth, and not all the reasons to reject the truth.
RC Sproul passed away 8 years ago, hes at peace now.
So now answer the question and kindly stop being ignorant
I answered your question. (Father, give me patience.)
PaulThomson said:
You asked:
Why would Jesus want and desire to do his God's will?
I answered:
Because that was the plan of God when the Son and the Father and the Holy Spirit agreed to sending the Son into the world in the form of a human zygote to grow into a baby boy, and to grow up into a man, who would continue to love all mankind even while He allowed other humans to kill him. The crucifixion was the Son's idea. Why would he not want/desire/will to do what He had planned with the rest of the Godhead to do in order to convince mankind that God really wants to reconcile with mankind? But by the same token, being a human being subject to the horrors of excruciating pain through torture, why would He not also, on an instinctive level, want/desire/ will to avoid going to the cross?
What in my answer is incompatible with any scripture?
The question was asked not on the basis of answering the question, but on the basis of trying to make you see a question why did Jesus do his Fathers will.
Calvinism's foreknowledge isn't what you and I think when we think of foreknowledge. When we think of it, we think God knows something beforehand.
What they teach is that foreknew is an active verb, it is something God does, God knows these people, these elect people. From eternity past of course.
The whole idea of covenant theology is a joke, they talk about a covenant of works and a covenant of grace from the foundation of the world, neither of which appears in Scripture. They make fun of dispensationalists but atleast the Abrahamic covenant really IS in the Bible.