The topical context of Isaiah 45:11 is Romans 1:3.
A combination of the texts according to the hermeneutic of 1 Corinthians 2:13 bears out that Jesus is Jehovah.
Understanding the Trinity as a doctrine.
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A combination of the texts according to the hermeneutic of 1 Corinthians 2:13 bears out that Jesus is Jehovah.
Every singular verse of holy scripture (including Isaiah 45:11) stands, on its own, as a bastion of biblical truth.
However, my case for believing in the Deity of our Lord Jesus Christ is not based on Isaiah 45:11 alone.
Really? Well take a close look at this (Exodus 3:14,15): And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.
According to this passage, I AM is the personal name of the Lord God Almighty. The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and the God of every genuine Christian. And Jesus of Nazareth told the Jews "Before Abraham was I AM". He also told them that if they did not believe this they would die in their sins.
Since you have flatly denied what God has affirmed, it means that you believe neither God nor Christ. Those who deny the deity of Christ are in fact unbelievers (just like the religious leaders of His day).
Not only this, but the scribes and Pharisees understood His claim; and sought to stone Him for blasphemy (John 8:59, John 10:31-33).
Correct. Instead of acknowledging Jesus as God, they accused Him of being demon-possessed and tried to stone Him for blasphemy. There are many today who refuse to believe that Jesus is God -- in spite of overwhelming evidence to the contrary. They are essentially unbelievers (like the scribes, Pharisees, and Sadducees), and will be damned.
Every verse stands on its own? Not within it's context? Is that your way of saying you don't have enough truth and humility inside of you to admit that you were wrong, and that Isaiah 45:11 is not saying that יהוה has a maker?
"I AM" is not His name.
First of all, that is not even a good translation... No translation of he Tanach reads that way, neither does the Greek. "I Am That I Am" should read: "I Am The One Who Is"..... "The One Who Is has sent me to you".
Secondly, Regardless of what you believe about the translation, The Most High never says His Name in Exo 3:14. His name is given in verse 15.. and is found all throughout the OT replaced with the words "The Lord". This is common knowledge amongst the large majority of people that study the bible:
Isaiah 42:8
I am יהוה: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images.
The Messiah is never referred to as the following names/titles that are reserved for The Most High God:
- THE MOST HIGH GOD
- THE ALMIGHTY
- Above all gods
- יהוה
You are calling God a liar. There would be no need to respond any further to you (or anyone else who makes God a liar).
For example, Matthew 2:15 is taken out of its original context to proclaim the truth that God called Jesus out of Egypt; while it is quoting a prophecy that applied to Israel being called out of Egypt (Hosea 11:1).
And 2 Corinthians 9:6, if taken in its immediate context, substantiates name-it-and-claim-it, health/wealth, prosperity, word of faith, doctrine. But if you apply Luke 8:11 to it, according to the hermeneutic of 1 Corinthians 2:13, you may come up with a more orthodox understanding.
And also, in John 19:37, a scripture that applies to the 2nd coming of Jesus (Zechariah 12:10) is applied to the crucifixion.
So, the immediate context isn't everything.
The Holy Ghost may even take verses out of their immediate context in order to make a point.
Correction: Hosea 11:1 is taken out of its original context, in Matthew 2:15.
I'm sure if the "Holy Ghost was taking verses out of context".. they wouldn't be changed to mean something different.. let alone blasphemous. Regardless, bringing up all these other verses is irrelevant.
Are you not able to swallow your pride and say that you were wrong? ...That Isaiah 45:11 is not sayin that יהוה has a maker but rather is the Maker of the man in verses 9 and 10?
Anyone following the posts can see the scriptures there.... you can do it, just take a small piece of humble pie. It's good for the spirit.
There is no pride involved in the knowledge that I am right in my interpretation of Isaiah 45:11.
Isaiah 45:9-11
9 Woe unto him that striveth with his Maker! Let the potsherd strive with the potsherds of the earth. Shall the clay say to him that fashioneth it, What makest thou? or thy work, He hath no hands?
10 Woe unto him that saith unto his father, What begettest thou? or to the woman, What hast thou brought forth?
11 Thus saith the Lord, the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, Ask me of things to come concerning my sons, and concerning the work of my hands command ye me.
Does anyone else on this thread agree with justbyfaith that Isaiah 45:11 says that "the Holy One of Israel" has a maker rather than the person in verses 9 and 10??
9 Woe unto him that striveth with his Maker! Let the potsherd strive with the potsherds of the earth. Shall the clay say to him that fashioneth it, What makest thou? or thy work, He hath no hands?
10 Woe unto him that saith unto his father, What begettest thou? or to the woman, What hast thou brought forth?
11 Thus saith the Lord, the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, Ask me of things to come concerning my sons, and concerning the work of my hands command ye me.
Does anyone else on this thread agree with justbyfaith that Isaiah 45:11 says that "the Holy One of Israel" has a maker rather than the person in verses 9 and 10??
For those who understand that Jesus is in fact Jehovah, it is a no-brainer to connect Isaiah 45:11 to Romans 1:3 and see that this is a substantiation of the knowledge that God has given to you.
What you say is misleading. English was invented, I am guessing maybe pre 1000 CE. So "I AM" (english form) was never in the Scriptures, The hebrew "אהיה" (your english "I AM" is in the bible 43 times in the OT based on my count. How many times was this said by people other than God? 12 times. Square the circle. Was Jephthah, Ruth, David, Jonathan or Hushai a deity or just Jesus. (the septuagint uses the same hebrew "אהיה" for the greek "ἐγώ εἰμι" ). I won't go into the greek usage, only if you wish.
Square the the discrepancies (other people other than Jesus) to your principle of ascribing "I AM" godhead vis-a-vis Jesus (i.e. state your rules).
Jesus broke the normal grammatical usage (from past to present tense when it should have consistently been in past tense) to make His claim in John 8:58; where He was clearly referring back to Exodus 3:14.
The scribes and the Pharisees understood this, because they picked up stones to stone Him for blasphemy (John 8:58, John 10:31-33).
The scribes and the Pharisees understood this, because they picked up stones to stone Him for blasphemy (John 8:58, John 10:31-33).