That's not what happened. You are completely ignoring Acts 2:4 "And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance."
They spoke in other languages. They spoke in the languages of the Jews who had travelled to Jerusalem for the Feast of Weeks and who had grown up learning languages other than Greek or Aramaic, and they heard the disciples
speaking in their languages (plural). There was no miracle of understanding mentioned; it was a miracle of Spirit-empowered
speech.
Any time Paul writes about unknown tongues he is speaking of foreign languages and anytime he speaks of interpreters, that is what we call translators.
So you are saying that what Paul calls "manifestations of the Holy Spirit" are actually just skills any unsaved human can develop.
You still have failed to address my comments on 1 Corinthians 14:13-19. You have not made
any defense against my assertion that people who speak in languages other than that of the local congregation are using their minds just as much as those speaking the local language. I don't think you have any defense.
He isn't speaking of some weird sounding non-language that is divinely inspired where the person speaking doesn't know what they are saying. That's pure imaginary fiction based on the archaic English in the KJV and people misunderstanding it.
You claimed earlier that the KJV was a superior translation to the NASB; now you're calling it "archaic". Do you even pay attention to yourself?
1. Someone speaking gibberish that they cannot understand.
You have just called the manifestation of the Holy Spirit "gibberish". I wonder what He thinks of that.
2. Someone speaking and everyone who hears them understands what they are saying perfectly no matter what language the hearer understands? Not only do they understand it, they hear it in their native accent. That's how perfectly the message is understood.
Native accent? That's unvarnished eisegesis. Nothing in Scripture suggests that is what happened at Pentecost. Nothing in Scripture suggests that the situation was one of
interpretation of tongues. Nothing in 1 Corinthians supports such a view.
What really would be considered a miracle from the Holy Spirit?
Apparently, you allowing the Scripture to correct you, for starters.
Your version is entirely invented to support the conclusion with which you began. I hope that isn't your standard method for interpreting Scripture.