That means the Catholic church will be the first resurrected!![]()
I am laughing
That means the Catholic church will be the first resurrected!![]()
I am laughing
The HEBREW explanation of Olive Tree and Lampstand means whole congregations. Whole congregations would keep the whole world in this type of knowledge than anything else.
It's simple logic which the pre-trib Rapture is completely void of. It's not even Biblically logical.
How so?
It literally says NOWHERE in the Bible about a Rapture before Tribulation taking place.
Since it does not literally say such a thing how am I guilty of doing what you do?
Are you saying that we have not had any tribulation for the last two thousand years of the church age? That must be a bitter pill to swallow for the apostles and all those martyred for the Lord.
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In 1 Thess.4 where it says God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep my language scholar friends say it probably says: God will bring up with him. This makes more sense then dying and gone to heaven then come with Jesus to be resurrected from the grave and returning to Heaven.
But every english bible uses the Masorectic text and it can say either/or
Just sharing info--don't kill the messenger
First heard that one in Bible college years ago.... Made me laugh, too!
I think I was told by two students from Maine telling me in their Maine accent, which made it even funnier!
........
2 Corinthians 5:10
For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, that each one may receive the things done in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad.
Once the Church has been sorted out, we return with Christ at the Second Coming to help rule over the Nations.
1 Thessalonians 5:9 For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ,
The cheap and cheesy escape from the obvious meaning to which this leads is some claim that the wrath occurs later in the tribulation. That doesn't fit with chapter 6 of Revelation, so let's see if you have something novel to try and wiggle out of this.
Matthew 24:13-14
13 But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.
14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
Many run aground of those strange, unscriptural doctrines works-based salvations when trying to defend these verses allegedly speaking of us today.
Yaaauppp! Thadd it iz!Being an Aussie, I had to look up what a Maine accent sounded like. I think it's cool.![]()
You can position anywhere you like there's still not one single verse connecting to heaven at the Rapture anywhere. Only in the clouds and air.
Amen, but during the Rapture Event itself it's only clouds and air. But no doubt we will get to Heaven just not at the Rapture.
Look at the post you quoted and then make the claim you did. Comprehension seems to be a struggle for you at times.These things I have spoken to you, that in Me you may have peace. In the world you will have tribulation; but be of good cheer, I have overcome the world.” John 16:33
John 16:33 is not speaking of the great Tribulation.
It speaks of our everyday life while we are living in the liberal's world.
Now, here is the Great Tribulation!
For at that time there will be great tribulation, unmatched from the beginning of the world until now, and never to be seen again. Matthew 24:21
You mean to tell us?
Being the great Bible scholar you are?
That you do not know that verse exists???
.............Get out of bed soldier!
.................................Five minutes till breakfast is over!
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These verses indicate final tribulation. But the rapture shows up in verses 30-31 of this prophecy.Is there a verse in the New Testament that distinguishes between the tribulation during the church age and tribulation that takes place after the rapture?
Are you saying you have no issue with a "pre-70th week of Daniel rapture" and that your only issue is with the name of this doctrine?
You just are making it up to suit your beliefs but it says nothing like you claim.I believe it does.
One example:
2Th2:1-2 -
1Now we ask you, brothers, with regard to [/in behalf of] the [†]coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him [v.1's Subject: our Rapture],
2that you not be quickly shaken in your mind or be alarmed whether by a spirit or a word or a letter as if from us, to the effect [/purporting] that the day of the Lord has [already] come [i.e. purporting that the Tribulation period has already arrived (perfect indicative; transitive verb in the Greek)].
A few things:
--there's no need for Paul to say, "with regard to / in behalf of" our Rapture (the fact of our Rapture) unless he's tying it grammatically to the false claim "that the day of the Lord is present";
--in his earlier letter, he'd already made clear that the day of the Lord ARRIVES "exactly like [hosper]" the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" that Jesus had talked about; which itself takes place WELL PRIOR TO His Second Coming to the earth (7 yrs prior; and is EQUIVALENT to the SEALS of Rev6--in fact the FIRST SEAL--at the START of the "in quickness [noun]" time-period we label "the Trib" [Rev1:1/1:19c/4:1]);
--why would Paul think to say anything about "[not be] shaken in your mind" or "[not be] alarmed [/ 'wanting to "cry aloud, to scream (passive) because terrified" (WP, 1, 189); thrown into an "emotional uproar," i.e. very upset (alarmed, startled)']" IF he'd already taught them to EXPECT being here for it? (and in that case, the first part of the sentence [v.1's Rapture Subject] is WHOLLY OUT OF PLACE! "...in behalf of our Rapture..." what? WHAT ABOUT IT [unless you/Paul are connecting the ideas somehow]?! Why are these words here in v.1 [about our Rapture] if it has ZERO TO DO with its relation to the false claim [by others] saying/purporting "that the day of the Lord IS PRESENT" and the adverse effect such a false claim [v.2b's Subject] would have on their minds and reactions?)
--the phrase "the day of the Lord" is well-defined in Scripture (its ARRIVAL does NOT commence at the point in time of His Second Coming to the earth [/Armageddon time-slot, Rev19], but well BEFORE that point; It also goes on to INCLUDE that point as well as the entire MK age [1000 yrs]--so includes ALL THREE ASPECTS: Trib yrs, 2nd Coming, MK age)
You are correctFrom how I read his Post #2528, I thought he WAS distinguishing between the two. (In the context of his convo with ZNP.)
Perhaps I've mis-read his post there?
You just are making it up to suit your beliefs but it says nothing like you claim.
The media will control what is reported because the AC will control it. Do you think the AC would show news clips of 2 single people bringing the Wrath of God upon all sinners? Because when they die the Bible says all the people on Earth will celebrate.If I'm recalling rightly, you believe one of the two witnesses is the Gentile believers, who (as you'd put) are raptured "TO HEAVEN" (after they're killed and then are resurrected). Didn't you say this?
Doesn't that mean that (according to your view) that the "2W" are "raptured TO HEAVEN" per Rev11:12?
How are you now saying that when our Rapture happens, that it nowhere indicates it is "TO HEAVEN" (as its destination-location)?
[note to readers: I don't believe Rev11 speaks anywhere of a "rapture [G726]" event... the "2W" will ASCEND up to Heaven (not be "SNATCHED [G726]"); and I believe there will be ONLY ONE "G726 - SNATCH" event... not two, separated by time. No. (It pertains SOLELY to the "One Body"... "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY"--Eph1:20-23 WHEN [as to its existence])]