The Tribulation will be a continuation , and the last seven years, of the "Jewish age."
There will be no Rapture!!!
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The Tribulation will be a continuation , and the last seven years, of the "Jewish age."
Even YOU agree that God's "WRATH" will be expressed (UPON THE EARTH) DURING some portion of the Trib yrs, so don't be hypocritical by saying:
Regardless, the war in heaven of Rev 12 does take place.....in heaven.
I take it that Satan was cast from the exclusive environment of the throne room of God (where there are presently UNFALLEN Cherubim around the throne). And of course Satan lost his exalted position and assigned role.
But Satan MUST have had some access to heaven, as he was selling his lies to the YET UNFALLEN heavenly host.
I take it that he was coming to them, not vice versa.
I only agree that God removes the Restrainer and then Satan's Wrath is unleashed.
There are other passages referring to "before the Lord" (this phrase--these specific Hebrew words) where the persons were standing ON THE EARTH (in those contexts).
So there is NO REASON to suggest otherwise for THIS text.
On the other hand, show me a text where, "IN HEAVEN," ever "6 [There] became a day, when..."
I don't find one.
All of the Angels presenting themselves before God is not happening ever on Earth. God's Throne is in Heaven. During the 1,000 year Reign it will then also be on Earth.
I saw the LORD sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right hand and on his left.
Show me where God's Throne has ever been on Earth before the 1,000 year Reign?
Satan was booted before he deceived Eve and before the Fallen Angels came to human women in Genesis 3 and 6.
The text states, "the sons of God came to present themselves BEFORE THE LORD, and Satan came also among them" (he stopped "going to and fro in the earth and walking up and down in it" to do so... meaning, he settled in Job's neighborhood [ONE LOCATION IN THE EARTH] for that time-slot and purpose).
As it has always been. So?
Nowhere in the text does it state they were surrounding God's throne UP IN HEAVEN (you've added that "idea" into this text--Job1-2)
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God...
... if there WERE NO other texts stating such, THEN you might have a case.
But as it stands... you do not. = )
The CONTEXT of Job 1-2 is distinct from the CONTEXT of 1Ki22:19/2Chr18:18. Try not to conflate them.
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]...
"There became a day, when..." (on the earth
/ earthly-located) [Job1:6 / 2:1]
Every example of the location of God's Throne has always been located in the Throne Room in Heaven. Nowhere has it ever been on Earth.The text states, "the sons of God came to present themselves BEFORE THE LORD, and Satan came also among them" (he stopped "going to and fro in the earth and walking up and down in it" to do so... meaning, he settled in Job's neighborhood [ONE LOCATION IN THE EARTH] for that time-slot and purpose).
As it has always been. So?
Nowhere in the text does it state they were surrounding God's throne UP IN HEAVEN (you've added that "idea" into this text--Job1-2)
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God...
... if there WERE NO other texts stating such, THEN you might have a case.
But as it stands... you do not. = )
TheDivineWatermark said:
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]...
[meaning, WHILE THEY REMAINED ON THE EARTH]... and IN THOSE [OTHER] PASSAGES (referring to this ^ ) God's "THRONE" did NOT RELOCATE TO THE EARTH in order for those persons in those texts to present "before the Lord" (as they did!), AS YOU ARE SUGGESTING must be the case! NO!
So, why you are even suggesting this, is beyond me!
Coming from Earth does not necessary mean they remained on Earth.TheDivineWatermark said:
However, there ARE other texts stating that persons ON THE EARTH came to present before God [/the Lord]...
... and IN THOSE [OTHER] PASSAGES (referring to this ^ ) God's "THRONE" did NOT RELOCATE TO THE EARTH in order for those persons in those texts to present "before the Lord" AS YOU ARE SUGGESTING must be the case! NO!
You are not grasping what I am saying.
Other passages speak of HUMANS ON THE EARTH in the same way [/using the same wording] that Job 1:6 and 2:1 are worded (in the Hebrew).
Those humans on the earth did NOT relocate in order to present before the Lord;
NOR did God relocate His "throne" (to the earth) in order for them to present before the Lord.
They EACH REMAINED in their own distinctive realms, and yet the humans present before the Lord IN THOSE OTHER TEXTS (so why not in Job??)
IF there were NO OTHER passages speaking of this, then you would have a case; but there IS!
____________
In addition to that, I know of NO OTHER [biblical] instance, where it says (of Heaven) "There BECAME A DAY, when..."
Sure, Scripture speaks of specific dates and points of time ON THE EARTH (in relation to Heaven/God), but not UP THERE "There BECAME AND DAY, when...". If you can find a text saying such, then change my mind on that. = )
Wait a sec... don't you believe the "7 Vials," of which it is stated, "for IN THEM the WRATH OF GOD is COMPLETED" takes place ON THE EARTH rather than "in hell" [/somewhere outside the realm of "earth"]??