and why was he not referring to someone else?
Seems to be a lot of people's interpretation of that passage but I'm confused as to why quite frankly it's so incredibly clear when it's pretty vague. I understand that what was revealed to John was unlikely to have occurred 14 years prior but since that's the only person that it happened to and that it is possible that he was a long time in writing it down?
yeah I didn’t say it’s incredibly clear . But the reason I believe Paul is speaking of himself is the context that he’s talking about his great revelations that he received and will receive and also speaks of hearing things unlawful to be uttered. How would he know that if it wasn’t something lawful to speak of of it wasn’t him ?
again o say this often I can only share my own views that I come to from scriptire doesn’t mean it’s always right. But I tend to have that same view of everyone in a discussion forum we can only discuss and share things we come to ourself. And the. Discuss them and hear other ideas and points that others have come to from thier own studies
that’s how discussion works. I myself believe Paul’s speaking of himself given the context and also given the apocalypse of Paul. Which would probably be another contention point .
“It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory.
I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord. I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth
such an one caught up to the third heaven. And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth
How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
Of such an one will I glory: yet of myself I will not glory, but in mine infirmities.”
2 Corinthians 12:1-5 KJV
I believe Paul’s talking about himself in the third person right there because he is talking about the great revelations he’s received in this place and other places