Postrib vs Dispy

[FreeGrace2]

Just yesterday, I searched "in the bosom of the Father,' and within the retrieved article's explanation of the Son, who is "in the bosom of the Father" (John 1:18), was a suggested relation to these verses, John 14; 1-3, that struck true to me.

How do you think they relate? And what was your impression of my explanation of John 14:1-3?

Thanks.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Why , because is says the man of sin, the ac, is revealed first, but the one " letting" is holding the trib back. The one letting is holding back the revealing of the ac.

And that can't be the Holy Spirit, because He is omnipresent, like the other 2 members of the Trinity. And His primary ministry is evangelism and conviction. So He will be very active during the Trib.

Since it says "revealed", then the rapture, there is no postrib rapture anywhere in that dynamic

Actually, that IS the dynamic of a post trib rapture. The Trib and revealing of the a/c is revealed, and THEN the Second Coming and "gathering" (rapture) per v.1.

Postrib rapture is nowhere in the bible.

2 Thess 2:1-3 is very clear. But one must have open eyes to see it.

Zero verses pointing to it.

In fact, this applies directly to the pre trib theory. There are no verses that show Jesus taking resurrected and raptured believers to heaven.

It isn't even implied in any verse. But, of course, people are always "seeing things".

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
But that's NOT what He said or meant. He was referring to His prophesied Second Advent by the words "I will come back". But pretribbers assume He will take them all to heaven, even though He didn't say that.

You are either being deliberately dense or trying to pervert the Word of God. Either way you do not need any further responses.

What you think of my response is immaterial to the truth. But what can be seen as "deliverately dense" is trying to fit some kind of pretrib theory into John 14:1-3 because it just isn't there.

But, since you seem to think it is, why don't you, instead of just throwing insults around, actually engage my explanation and prove how it can't be correct?

 

[FreeGrace2]

After the trib;

Angels gather, not Jesus

Just more word games.

Consider John 4:1,2:
1 Now Jesus learned that the Pharisees had heard that he was gaining and baptizing more disciples than John — 2 although in fact it was not Jesus who baptized, but his disciples

Do you see it?

That is why it is important to see what is after the trib.
No rapture to be found.

The gathering follows the Trib. Same wording in 2 Thess 2:1 which you seem to refuse to touch. For obvious reasons. It destroys your theory.

 

[AandW]

That word is important for sure.
After the trib;

Angels gather, not Jesus

The gathering is from heaven not earth.

That is why it is important to see what is after the trib.
No rapture to be found.

The important Verse is 30 that claims the Son of Man appears {Christ's Return} and then the gathering happens. It's still a Post Trib Gathering.

 

[Mem]

How do you think they relate? And what was your impression of my explanation of John 14:1-3?

Thanks.

I was thinking in terms of a 'place for you' and 'where I am' as "in the Father's bosom" , as in a impression of the most holy place. I understand your explanation of it is more in the terms of in heaven, which I can't really disagree with.

 

[randyk]

The second coming has Jesus sitting on a horse with billions also coming from heaven also sitting on horses.
Rev 14 has Jesus SITTING on a cloud. No horses. None at all.

Thats why you have an insurmountable problem and act like the 2 are the exact same thing.

Okay, thanks for the explanation. I didn't know you were trying to distinguish Rev 19 from Rev 14! My own personal view is that the armies in heaven are absent in Rev 14 simply because they aren't the focus of that particular vision. If Christ's Coming is dealt with from a number of different perspectives, the whole scenario isn't going to be reproduced every time it is mentioned.