Post Trib Rapture?

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Saul-to-Paul

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Jun 5, 2017
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Sometimes 'history' backs up what the Bible says - and we are talking about the 'physical' here and not the 'spiritual'.
Man's wisdom.
that’s actually not what you did you were tying John 2 to Matthew 24 they don’t correlate they are of two seperate testaments one has to conclude before the other can be instituted

One is about Jesus death and resurrection

The other is about the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem ( which happened in 67-70 ad)

that’s my point and it’s simple reading the context of both is the only requirement

You know what might help ? How about Marks contemporary of Mathew 24 regarding this

“And as he went out of the temple, one of his disciples saith unto him, Master, see what manner of stones and what buildings are here! And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

And as he sat upon the mount of Olives over against the temple, Peter and James and John and Andrew asked him privately, Tell us, when shall these things be?

and what shall be the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled?

‭‭Mark‬ ‭13:1-4 ‭KJV‬‬

Can you agree that Jerusalem was besieged and destroyed and the temple was destroyed in 67 -70 ads Roman siege ? And that the Jews were dispersed then into the rest of the world ?

if we can’t at least agree with what happened there’s no reason for us to keep going
I was not trying to correlate the 2 passage as the same event. The only correlation I was trying to make is that Jesus uses physical to teach spiritual. As I have said before.
 

Saul-to-Paul

Junior Member
Jun 5, 2017
403
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Sometimes 'history' backs up what the Bible says - and we are talking about the 'physical' here and not the 'spiritual'.
Man's wisdom.
jesus is talking about the temple building in Jerusalem they are sitting there looking at that’s Matthew 24s context

This which you quoted has nothing to do with the temple building in Jerusalem that was destroyed 2000 years ago

“Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.”
‭‭John‬ ‭2:19‬ ‭KJV‬‬

That has no correlation to Matthew 24

desolation was what God promised israel free they broke the covenant if they didn’t repent and accept the messiah when he came and they rejected him so his words were fulfilled regarding Israel’s temple and covenant it’s desolate now

they as well as everyone else has to accept the New Testament to have any life
My quotes there have been misplaced.
 

Yahshua

Senior Member
Sep 22, 2013
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^ ... not to mention my Post #192 (on this page)? - https://christianchat.com/threads/post-trib-rapture.209486/post-5012254





[I'm beginning to wonder why the issues in those two posts (#100 and #192) are being avoided... :unsure: ]

To answer your question, there are not only "saints" in the millennium kingdom age but saints (glorified, 1st resurrection) and sinners (mortals). For a few reasons (in no particular order):

1) Revelation 2:27 says that those that overcome will rule the nations with Messiah with a rod of iron to dash them into pieces. No reason to dash obedient saints into pieces.

2) Zechariah 14:16 speaks about the "survivors" of the nations being required to come up to Jerusalem year after year for the feast of tabernacles (Messiah's birthday) who will be cursed with no rain if they do not. Saints wouldn't be disobedient.

3) Daniel 7:12 says that the beasts/nations will be prolonged for a time after the hideous beast is destroyed.

4) Revelation 20 explains that satan is cast into prison to no longer deceive the nations until the 1000 years are over, which suggests that the nations can still be deceived (i.e. they are not glorified). The passage then continues; after 1000 years are over satan is loosed to deceive the nations again which leads to gog magog war. These people can't be glorified saints.
 

Yahshua

Senior Member
Sep 22, 2013
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^ ... not to mention my Post #192 (on this page)? - https://christianchat.com/threads/post-trib-rapture.209486/post-5012254





[I'm beginning to wonder why the issues in those two posts (#100 and #192) are being avoided... :unsure: ]
Apologies. This is a repost to correct my quoting error.

To answer your question, there are not only "saints" in the millennium kingdom age but saints (glorified, 1st resurrection) and sinners (mortals). For a few reasons (in no particular order):

1) Revelation 2:27 says that those that overcome will rule the nations with Messiah with a rod of iron to dash them into pieces. No reason to dash obedient saints into pieces.

2) Zechariah 14:16 speaks about the "survivors" of the nations being required to come up to Jerusalem year after year for the feast of tabernacles (Messiah's birthday) who will be cursed with no rain if they do not. Saints wouldn't be disobedient.

3) Daniel 7:12 says that the beasts/nations will be prolonged for a time after the hideous beast is destroyed.

4) Revelation 20 explains that satan is cast into prison to no longer deceive the nations until the 1000 years are over, which suggests that the nations can still be deceived (i.e. they are not glorified). The passage then continues; after 1000 years are over satan is loosed to deceive the nations again which leads to gog magog war. These people can't be glorified saints.
 

GaryA

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And did Daniel "STAND IN THY LOT" (which is "on the earth," by the way) at the END OF THE DAYS surrounding the 176bc events??

The answer is, no... he did not.


[Daniel 12:13,6-7,1]







The "AOD" of Antiochus Epiphanes' era is talked about in Dan11:31 (not 12:11, which is yet "future"--and parallel to the time-frame spoken of also in Dan7:25 [and elsewhere])
I will have to see about addressing this later - it is a bit complex.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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I will have to see about addressing this later - it is a bit complex.
I am interested in you finding "Paul's conversion" in Daniel 9......or any other time constrained prophecy.
 

GaryA

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That is an absolutely ridiculous claim. The grammar is crystal clear in all of these verses.....the event is FUTURE.
You are misunderstanding what I am saying. It is not a grammar issue. (as it is written)

Yes - in the grammar - as it is written - it is suggesting a future event. However, it is being said (to the Jews) in a 'wink' + "you know what I mean" manner.

A modern-day example:

I say to you - "...when you see planes hit the twin towers..." - suggesting a future event. But, you are well-aware that that event is already in the historical past. So, you understand that I am connecting something with the past event to the future event I am foretelling.

What I am trying to communicate about the future event is not that planes will hit the twin towers - it is the something that I am connecting with the past event which you know has already occurred.

The Matthew and Mark accounts of the Olivet Discourse 'encrypt' the information that the Luke account simply states in straight-forward simplicity.

Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20, and Luke 21:20-24 are all referring to the same events in the same time frame.

In effect, what is written in the Matthew and Mark accounts is saying "when you see [what happened to Jerusalem at the AOD] about to happen again..."

What happened to Jerusalem at the AOD in 176 B.C.?

1) Jerusalem was surrounded by armies.
2) Jerusalem was desolated by an army.

What happened to Jerusalem circa 70 A.D.?

1) Jerusalem was surrounded by armies.
2) Jerusalem was desolated by an army.

The real actual bona fide AOD is intrinsically tied to Daniel 11. We are told in no uncertain terms exactly when the AOD occurred. We can match the account in Daniel 11 to history. The real actual bona fide AOD was already past history on the date of the Olivet Discourse.

And, the Jews knew this very well - and, knew exactly what it meant. (What was written in the Matthew and Mark accounts of the Olivet Discourse.)

The parenthetical statements are the 'wink' + "you know what I mean"...
 

GaryA

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Jacobs trouble future? Jacobs trouble 70AD? What? You lost me there.
I believe it is Armageddon. And, if not that, then it must be 70 A.D. - I know of no other [prophetic] 'events' that it can be associated with.

Well.....at least we agree that 70AD is not the AOD nor is this specific date contained in Daniel or any other chronological time-constrained prophecy.
If the 'specific date' you refer to here is 70 A.D. - then, yes - we agree.

The critical failure in your views are that Daniel's prophecies are all inextricably bound into ALL OF THE OTHER OT PROPHECIES regarding the future final redemption of Israel. And I mean all of them, one way or another. Including those of successions of the gentile kingdoms/nations. All of which really orbit around God's overall plan of redemption for Israel.
The Daniel 9:24-27 prophecy concerns Israel in history only up to the events of the first century and nothing whatsoever beyond that century. It is 100% fulfilled. The very last part of its fulfillment was 70 A.D. - which was only a mere mention in the prophecy. All of the "actionable items" in the prophecy were fulfilled by Jesus Himself long before that. And, there is absolutely nothing about/in it that is future to us.
 

GaryA

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If I was a betting man, I would take that bet in a heartbeat - because I know that I know that I know that I know - that I absolutely know - beyond a shadow of any doubt whatsoever - that Daniel 9:24-27 is NOT about a future 7-year tribulation period, antichrist, treaty, etc.
 
Dec 21, 2020
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If I was a betting man, I would take that bet in a heartbeat - because I know that I know that I know that I know - that I absolutely know - beyond a shadow of any doubt whatsoever - that Daniel 9:24-27 is NOT about a future 7-year tribulation period, antichrist, treaty, etc.
Just like you know the earth is flat? :)
 

GaryA

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Just like you know the earth is flat? :)
Let me just put it this way - I would put the proper understanding of Daniel 9:24-27 orders-of-magnitude above the Flat Earth belief.

To compare:

I am "quite certain" about the earth being flat.

I "absolutely know beyond a shadow of any doubt whatsoever" that I have a proper understanding of what Daniel 9:24-27 is actually saying.

Does this illustrate the point effectively?
 

GaryA

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Something else I "absolutely know beyond a shadow of any doubt whatsoever" that I have a proper understanding of:

Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20, and Luke 21:20-24 are all referring to the same events in the same time frame.
 

GaryA

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Also - from this past post in another thread (with regard to Matthew 24):

Verses 16-20 comprise the instructions that the Jew-Christians were to follow according to the recognition of what is being illustrated in verse 15.

'When ye therefore shall see...'

[then]

'follow these instructions'

(And don't waste any time doing it.)

There was a three-year seige before the Romans took the city and destroyed the temple.

The Jew-Christians followed the instructions before/as the seige began.

What did they 'see' - before/as the seige began - three years before the temple was ever touched or destroyed - that they instantly recognized as being what was illustrated in verse 15?

hint:

( whoso readeth, let him understand: )
 

GaryA

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Three years before any 'physical' AOD could possibly have taken place - the Christians headed for the mountains.

They saw Jerusalem surrounded by armies.

They understood perfectly.

Think about it...
 

GaryA

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The very last part of its fulfillment was 70 A.D. - which was only a mere mention in the prophecy.
Well - there is more there than just "a mere mention" - but, you know what I mean...
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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If I was a betting man, I would take that bet in a heartbeat - because I know that I know that I know that I know - that I absolutely know - beyond a shadow of any doubt whatsoever - that Daniel 9:24-27 is NOT about a future 7-year tribulation period, antichrist, treaty, etc.
Here is your problem:
Implicit in your theory is amillennialism and denial of the redemption/reconstitution of the Nation Israel.
But really it is worse than that. You are denying the King and His Kingdom, of which Israel, Jerusalem and His Temple are intrinsic.

End time (and really ALL) prophecy is ultimately about the King and His Kingdom. First of all coming upon the earth, then a new heavens and new earth and new eternal Kingdom.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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I believe it is Armageddon.
Please, PLEASE define your concept of "Armageddon". When and where and what.

Biblically, it is meant to refer to the future Rev 16:16 battle at Har Megiddo, which the OT also prophecies many times.
 

GaryA

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Here is your problem:
Implicit in your theory is amillennialism and denial of the redemption/reconstitution of the Nation Israel.
But really it is worse than that. You are denying the King and His Kingdom, of which Israel, Jerusalem and His Temple are intrinsic.

End time (and really ALL) prophecy is ultimately about the King and His Kingdom. First of all coming upon the earth, then a new heavens and new earth and new eternal Kingdom.
NOPE - none of that. Not sure how you came up with all of that.

No amillennialism in my view of things. I most definitely believe that there will be a 1000-year reign of Christ on the earth.

All things left to accomplish where the nation of Israel is concerned will occur at the time of the Second Coming of Christ - and afterward. And, one part of all of that is Armageddon.

Nothing will happen with Israel until Christ returns. But, after He returns, Israel will have a part to play in the millennium.

Not denying any such thing. There is the Kingdom that is now. There is the Kingdom that Christ will set up when he comes.

Please, PLEASE define your concept of "Armageddon". When and where and what.

Biblically, it is meant to refer to the future Rev 16:16 battle at Har Megiddo, which the OT also prophecies many times.
Yep...

Please see: http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Order_Of_Events.html