Unlike many of my opponents who cling to "proof texts" while ignoring mine and stubbornly refuse any attempts at textual harmony because anything less than their rigid interpretations totally undermines them, I always seek textual harmony without fear of the same.
But, before I address 1 John 3:6 KJV, please consider one of many examples that can be given to overthrow OSAS:
Matthew 24:12-13 KJV:
"And because iniquity shall abound, the love (agape) of many shall wax cold, but he that shall endure to the end, the same shall be saved."
No one is going to argue that the unrighteous are partakers of "agape", which means these "many" who through the practice of iniquity kill their agape cold and dead, fail to endure to the end, and end up not saved....
are saints.
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Now, regarding the
"known" of 1 John 3:6 KJV:
If we compare this verse with 1 John 2:3 KJV where
"know" is used twice, in the Greek it is two different verb tenses and to convey the distinction, the clause may be rendered, "We are knowing that we have come to know
and still know". So, when John says, "Neither known Him", doesn't necessarily mean "ever known" but can easily mean "has not known since lapsing into rebellion".
If we rigidly interpret 1 John 3:6 KJV "neither known Him" as "never known Him at all", then we introduce textual disharmony - we cause a contradiction with 1 John 2:3 KJV, as well as with several other passages that clearly depict saints falling back into a state which is "worse than the beginning" of them. What say you?