You believe the throne of His glory is earthly?
Yes,
[I think I put this in another recent thread] Isaiah 24:21-23 says,
Isa 24:21
And it shall come to pass in that day,
that the LORD shall
PUNISH the host of the high ones
that are on high, and the kings of the earth upon the earth. [see Rev19:19,21 / 16:14-16 / 20:5... at the time-slot of His Second Coming
to the earth / Armageddon]
Isa 24:22
And they shall be gathered together,
as prisoners are gathered in the pit ["pit" often referring to death/the grave], and shall be shut up in the prison,
and after many days shall they be visited/
PUNISHED. [note that
a time-period SEPARATES these two distinct "PUNISH" words; this latter one corresponds to the GWTj, well after His Second Coming
to the earth Rev19; the "Amill-teaching" that there is NO CORROBORATION elsewhere in Scripture to what we see in Rev19-20 about the 1000 years (a period of time) FOLLOWING His Second Coming to the earth, is proven wrong... because this very passage DOES corroborate! It's providing the VERY SAME SEQUENCE: a period of time BETWEEN the TWO "PUNISH" words in this passage]
Isa 24:23
Then the moon shall be confounded, and the sun ashamed,
when the LORD of hosts shall reign in mount Zion, and in Jerusalem, and before his ancients
gloriously.
Another passage is Acts 3:12-26,
where the "Amill-teachings" (and others) incorrectly say that Jesus' throne [David's throne] is transferred to now be located up in heaven ever since His ascension... but they only say this because:
1) they CONFLATE the
TWO distinct "raise" issues (re: Jesus) in this passage -
a)
"raised" to a position of prominence ['A Prophet... raise up unto you of your brethren like unto me [/Moses]'] in His earthly ministry
BEFORE the Cross (vv.22-23,26); and
b)
"raised" from the dead AFTER the Cross (vv.15,13a);
2) where Acts 3:24 states, "Yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after, as many as have spoken,
have likewise foretold of these days," the "Amill-teachings" (and others)
incorrectly surmise that this verse is speaking (re: the "[have] foretold
of these days" thing) to mean David's throne
now being located UP IN Heaven;
whereas what "[have] foretold
of these days"
actually refers to
His "suffering servant" days (His earthly ministry, rejection, and death on the Cross; ... "His Servant Jesus" vv.13,26;
See also Jesus' words in
Lk19:14 "We will not have this man to reign over us," reflective of both
1Sam8:7's "for they have not
rejected thee, but they have
rejected me,
that I should not reign over them"
and
Gen37:8's [re: Joseph's FIRST dream [
=Jesus' FIRST advent] "And his brethren said to him,
Shalt thou indeed reign over us? or shalt thou indeed have dominion over us? And they hated him yet the more for his dreams, and for his words." [whereas Joseph's SECOND dream
=Jesus' SECOND advent, events surrounding])...
... which ("Suffering Servant") aspect Peter's listeners (v.12 "ye men of Israel")
HAD OVERLOOKED / BYPASSED in their focusing
only on the "reigning King" aspects of OT prophecies,
thus fulfilling that very thing in having Jesus put to death (vv.13-17). THAT is what "[have] foretold
of these days" (v.24) is speaking to, NOT the idea that David's throne is
now located UP THERE (no longer located on the earth). The "Amill-teachings" (and others) are incorrect in this matter.
Hope that helps you see my perspective a little better, though I think you and I may have discussed some of this in previous threads... not sure.
Have a great day! = )
