Jesus' Entitlements

[Webers.Home]

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The status of born-again Christians in God's family circle is that of an
adopted child. (Rom 8:15, Gal 4:5, Eph 1:15)

Jesus' status is many times more superior than theirs because he's in God's
family circle as a paternal child; in point of fact, as God's one and only
paternal child. (John 1:14 John 1:18 John 3:16, John 3:18, 1John 4:9)

Regardless of how people believe Jesus might've obtained his paternal
status, and regardless of whether his paternal status is actual or
administrative, the status entitles Jesus to be known as God's direct
descendant-- a position whereby the rules of heredity entitle Jesus to be
known by his Father's name, which most everybody knows is Jehovah, a.k.a.
Yahweh. (cf. Heb 1:4-5)

Now if God was to actually father a direct descendant, the result would be as
divine as Himself just as when a man fathers a direct descendant, the result
is as human as himself, i.e. more of his own kind. So then, in his status as
God's direct descendant, Jesus is entitled to be known as deity, i.e. the one
true deity.

NOTE: I'm not suggesting that Jesus' relationship with God is biological. The
thing is: I don't know how else to explain their situation except in terms
familiar to us all
_

 

[Blain]

Well think of this way the virgin mary had Jesus as a baby but one could only have a baby with a seed so if the father gave his seed to mary then yes Jesus is a direct biological child of the father

 

[Webers.Home]

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● Isa 52:13 . . Behold, My servant will prosper, he will be high and lifted up, and
greatly exalted.

In recognition for the unusual extent of his dedication to God and Man, Phil 2:6-11
says God gave Jesus the name that is above every name. Well; those of us
schooled in the old testament know that the name above every name is spelled
with the four-letter tetragrammaton YHWH and/or YHVH.

The correct pronunciation is currently unknown. Sometimes it's pronounced
Yehovah, sometimes Jehovah, and sometimes Yahweh. The appellation is so sacred
among pious Jews that they make every effort to avoid speaking it except under
very special circumstances.

Anyway, because Jesus has that name, he is entitled to be worshipped and revered
by everyone up in the sky, everyone down on the ground, and everyone under the
ground, viz: the full round of nature; and then some, even the angels. (Heb 1:6)

I'd imagine there will be some very bitter folks who will resist bending the knee in
reverence to Jesus' name; nevertheless they will, and possibly by force if necessary
because the dignity of the name has to take priority over their personal feelings
about Jesus.
_

 

[Webers.Home]

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In the old testament economy, it was customary for a father's eldest son to
inherit the entirety of his estate. In time, it became a law for Moses' people
whereby the custom was revised a bit so that all of a father's sons could
inherit something except that his eldest should receive at least twice as
much as the junior siblings. (Deut 21:15-17)

Jesus has quite an advantage in this area of his association with God. The
thing is; according to John 1:14 John 1:18 John 3:16, John 3:18, and 1John
4:9, Jesus is God's one and only paternal descendant. So then Jesus has no
challengers in regard to his Father's estate, viz: Jesus has no paternal
siblings so he's entitled to the whole shebang.

● Heb 1:1-2 . . In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the
prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has
spoken to us by His son, whom He appointed heir of all things,

We're talking about more than material wealth here, we're also talking about
political superiority.

● 1Pet 3:21-22 . . Jesus Christ, who has gone into heaven and is at God's
right hand--with angels, authorities and powers in submission to him.

It is very difficult to estimate the extent of God's estate seeing as how it
takes in the whole cosmos-- all of its forms of life, matter, and energy. And
that's only the portion of God's estate with which I'm familiar. There's more
yet. (John 16:15)
_

 

[posthuman]

Well think of this way the virgin mary had Jesus as a baby but one could only have a baby with a seed so if the father gave his seed to mary then yes Jesus is a direct biological child of the father

God became flesh - - great is the mystery

Christ Jesus's paternity involves His maternity: the subject isn't that He in any way "inherited" divinity - because He set aside His glory, humbling Himself, to come to earth - the glory He shared with the Father ((Who does not share His glory with anyone)) before time began.
hence He was GOD eternally, is God eternally, will eternally be God. there is not timelike delineation of His deity; no such delimiter exists.

the subject is necessarily the hypostatic union - that Christ, Who has always been and forever is God, also became man.

He was never not God; He is never not God. but He is also man, the Son of Man.

 

[posthuman]

It is very difficult to estimate the extent of God's estate

no.

it is easy:

all things, whether in heaven or on earth.​

everything is by Him, for Him, through Him.​

∞

 

[Pilgrimshope]

.
The status of born-again Christians in God's family circle is that of an
adopted child. (Rom 8:15, Gal 4:5, Eph 1:15)

Jesus' status is many times more superior than theirs because he's in God's
family circle as a paternal child; in point of fact, as God's one and only
paternal child. (John 1:14 John 1:18 John 3:16, John 3:18, 1John 4:9)

Regardless of how people believe Jesus might've obtained his paternal
status, and regardless of whether his paternal status is actual or
administrative, the status entitles Jesus to be known as God's direct
descendant-- a position whereby the rules of heredity entitle Jesus to be
known by his Father's name, which most everybody knows is Jehovah, a.k.a.
Yahweh. (cf. Heb 1:4-5)

Now if God was to actually father a direct descendant, the result would be as
divine as Himself just as when a man fathers a direct descendant, the result
is as human as himself, i.e. more of his own kind. So then, in his status as
God's direct descendant, Jesus is entitled to be known as deity, i.e. the one
true deity.

NOTE: I'm not suggesting that Jesus' relationship with God is biological. The
thing is: I don't know how else to explain their situation except in terms
familiar to us all
_

“The status of born-again Christians in God's family circle is that of an
adopted child.”

amen it’s only in Christ the only begotten son tbat we are Gods children

“But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.”
‭‭John‬ ‭1:12-13‬ ‭KJV‬‬

We become children or are “ adopted “ tbrough him the only begotten it’s what makes us hiers of Abraham

“For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. ( making us Gods beloved children ) There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: ( our former identity is gone in gods eyes ) for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. ( now we’re identified in Christ Jesus as children belovedof God as he is )

And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.”
‭‭Galatians‬ ‭3:26-29‬ ‭

It’s speaking of the promise of blessing to aBrahmans true children born of all nations in Christ

“and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭22:18‬ ‭KJV‬‬

 

[cv5]

no.

it is easy:

all things, whether in heaven or on earth.​

everything is by Him, for Him, through Him.​

∞

(x2+y2−1)3−x2y3=0

 

[Webers.Home]

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As to his identification as the Son of Man, it is very easy to prove the Word's
human origin began with Adam's creation.

● Luke 1:31-32 . . You will be with child and give birth to a son, and you are to
give him the name Jesus. . . .The Lord God will give him the throne of his father
David.

Now, before any man can be considered for David's throne he has to be one
of the king's natural descendants; and that's on oath.

● Ps 132:11 . .The Lord has sworn in truth unto David; and He will not turn
from it: "Of the fruit of your body will I set upon your throne"

The new testament verifies Jesus is the fruit of David's body spoken of in
that oath.

● Acts 2:29-30 . . Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the
patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us
unto this day. Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn
with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he
would raise up Christ to sit on his throne.

● Rom 1:1-3 . . Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle,
separated unto the gospel of God, concerning His son Jesus Christ our Lord,
which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh

The Greek word for "seed" is a mite ambiguous because it can refer to
spiritual progeny as well as biological progeny; but in David's case; seed
refers to biological progeny because Christ was 1) the fruit of David's body
and 2) of David's loins according to the flesh.

So then, seeing as how Jesus was David's paternal descendant, then of
course Jesus was Adam's paternal descendant too because we all, including
David, descend from a common ancestor.

● Gen 3:20 . . Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the
mother of all the living.

● Acts 17:26 . . He made from one, every nation of mankind to live on all
the face of the earth.

NOTE: According to Luke 1:31-33, the Word's incarnation has two paternal
fathers, the one divine and the other human, so that Jesus could speak of
himself as deity and he could speak of himself as mankind. I think quite a
few Bible readers much prefer him one way or the other, rather than both
simultaneously. As someone fully God and fully Man, the Word's incarnation
can be a mite confusing at times.
_

 

[posthuman]

As to his identification as the Son of Man, it is very easy to prove the Word's
human origin began with Adam's creation.

eh i think not.

seeing that the Word says let us make man in our image

how can the Word not begin until after having later made him?

what, He was imageless and void, non-existing, when He thought to create a likeness of Himself?? what is man then? nonexistent, a lie?

meiner Meinung nach, deiner Meinung passt nicht.

 

[posthuman]

(x2+y2−1)3−x2y3=0

{(0,1), (1,0)}

z.b.

 

[Aaron56]

eh i think not.

seeing that the Word says let us make man in our image

how can the Word not begin until after having later made him?

what, He was imageless and void, non-existing, when He thought to create a likeness of Himself?? what is man then? nonexistent, a lie?

meiner Meinung nach, deiner Meinung passt nicht.

I like this discussion so I'm just thinking here:

While the Word and the Father attended creation (where everything that was made came through the Word) man was made with a current standard: "..in the image and likeness of the Word and Father."

Later, in Philippians, this is said about Jesus: "But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men..."

It seems that the order was reversed: Jesus took on the likeness of men.

It appears this this only works if the image and likeness of Word and Father have nothing to do with the flesh... because they are Spirit. Indeed, Adam and Woman only recognized their nakedness only after their identity switched from being "spirits clothed in flesh" (because their Father was a Spirit) to their flesh being their primary point of identity. Such a shift occurred when they ate the fruit to satisfy their flesh.

In the Greek, likeness is homoiōma which seems to be related to identity.
And image is eikōn which seems to be related to character.

It would make sense that Jesus would have the identity of man (and man's weaknesses) without the flawed character of the sin nature.

(This is very rough and could be bogus. I'm just thinking about this now.)