The purpose of the Old Test. today.
1. It defines sin and righteousness.
A. Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law. (NKJ)
B. Rom 7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, "You shall not covet." (NKJ)
C. Rom 7:12 "...the law is holy, and the commandment is holy and righteous and good."
D. Rom 15:4 "For whatever was written in earlier time's was written for our instruction..."
E. I Cor 10:6-11 6 Now these things became our examples, to the intent that we should not lust after evil things as they also lusted. 7 And do not become idolaters as were some of them. As it is written, "The people sat down to eat and drink, and rose up to play." 8 Nor let us commit sexual immorality, as some of them did, and in one day twenty-three thousand fell; 9 nor let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed by serpents; 10 nor complain, as some of them also complained, and were destroyed by the destroyer. 11 Now all these things happened to them as examples, and they were written for our admonition, on whom the ends of the ages have come. (NKJ)
F. I Tim 1:8 But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully… (NKJ)
II Tim 3:16-17 16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work. (NKJ)
(alternate version's)
II Tim 3:16 Every scripture inspired of God (is) also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness. (ASV)
II Tim 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; (NAS)
II Tim 3:16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, (NIV)
H. Mt 5:17-18 17 "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. 18 "For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the aw till all is fulfilled. (NKJ)
Here is something to think about: Most people interpret this passage to mean that when all the prophesies concerning Jesus suffering and resurrection ere fulfilled that the law passed away.
In order to interpret it this way, one must believe that the word "all" does not include all of the Old Test prophesies concerning the Messiah. Hence the word "all" is not all inclusive.
There is some support for this reasoning in other passage's of scripture, and in logic. e.g. If John and 7 other people who were with him went to the Mall; We could state that they all went to the Mall. Here the term "all" does not mean that every human being on earth went to the Mall; but that John and His 7 friend's did. So the term "all" is not all inclusive; but limited in scope to the 8 people referred to in the sentence. Hence context determines whether or not the word "all" is all inclusive or not.
But in this passage; it is hard to determine the correct interpretation of this word. For if you consider the context of the rest of the New Test.; It can be reasonably concluded that the word "all" is not all inclusive. But if you isolate the verse from the rest of the New Test. The context demand's that it be interpreted as all inclusive. This, of course, would mean that every part of the law is still in effect because not all of the prophecies concerning Jesus in the Old Testament have yet been fulfilled! (Although many have been.) But according to the rest of the New Test., this cannot be true.
So may I suggest an alternate interpretation? Consider this: Being that the term "all" is all inclusive in the verse's context, and the rest of the New Testament say's that at least a portion of the law is done away with; it could be said that just as a portion of the prophecy’s have been fulfilled; and a portion have not been fulfilled; so also a portion of the Old Testament is done away with (i.e. Levitical Priesthood, Temple worship, animal sacrifice for sin, circumcision, the ark of the covenant, Passover, etc.) and a portion still remains in effect. (i.e. the moral law's of the Old Testament such as:
Deut 6:4-7 4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one! 5 "You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your strength. 6 "And these words which I command you today shall be in your heart. 7 "You shall teach them diligently to your children, and shall talk of them when you sit in your house, when you walk by the way, when you lie down, and when you rise up. (NKJ)
Mt 22:37-40 37 Jesus said to him," `You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.' 38 "This is the first and great commandment. 39 "And the second is like it: `You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' 40 "On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets." (NKJ) Mk 12:30
Lev 19:18 `You shall not take vengeance, nor bear any grudge against the children of your people, but you shall love your neighbor as yourself: I am the LORD. (NKJ)
Matt 19:19 `Honor your father and your mother,' and, ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.'" (NKJ) (Matt 22:39, Mark 12:31, Romans 13:9, Gal 5:14, James 2:8)
I could go on and on demonstrating how Old Testament laws are repeated in the New Testament ; but what has been given is sufficient to prove that the Old Testament moral law's are Still in effect today, and are to be obeyed! Of course, we cannot obey them in our own strength or effort's apart from God's power; but through His power and strength that He give's us we are to walk in obedience.
Also the Old Testament defines New Testament term's. For example: The New Test. state's that we are to abstain from sexual immorality. But it does not define sexual immorality. However it is defined for us in the Old Test. (e.g. Leviticus 18:6-24, 20:10-21 etc.) The New Testament tell's us to love God and our neighbor. The Old Test. tell's us how to do this. (as well as the New Testament to a certain degree). And so is the case with many other thing's that we are commanded to do/abstain from, in the New Testament )) (Here's something to think about: Jms 1:21-25 state's: 21 Therefore lay aside all filthiness and overflow of wickedness, and receive with meekness the implanted word, (i.e. the Old Testament, and letter's of apostle's that may have been available at the time. The "cannon" wasn't complete at this time.) WHICH IS ABLE TO SAVE YOUR SOUL'S. 22 But be doers of the word, and not hearers (or reader's) only, deceiving yourselves. 23 For if anyone is a hearer (or reader) of the word and not a doer, he is like a man observing his natural face in a mirror; 24 for he observes himself, goes away, and immediately forgets what kind of man he was.25 But he who looks into the perfect LAW OF LIBERTY (here the Old Testament is called the "perfect law of liberty") and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the WORK, THIS ONE WILL BE BLESSED in what he does. (NKJ) Now Jms. was written before A.D. 62. Matt. was written between A.D. 60-66; I Thes, A.D. 52 or 53; Gal, A.D. 56 or 57; Rom, A.D. 58; Eph, A.D. 61 or 62; Col, A.D. 61 or 62; Phil, A.D. 62 or 63; Heb, A.D. 62 or 63; I Tim, A.D. 65; Titus, A.D. 65; Jude, A.D. 65; II Tim, A.D. 68; I can't find date's for the other's. (source: Bible dict. and concordance). Hence. at the time that Jms wrote his epistle: I Thes, Gal, Rom, Eph, Col, and possibly Matt., were the ONLY New Test. book's in existence. (Book's that Jms may or may not have had copies of). And at least 9 of the New Testament Book's were either being written at the same time as Jms was; or at a later date; and being that the Jew's had synagogues in every city of the known world at that time, where the law of Moses was read every Sabbath, (Acts 15:21) And being that new's and letter's traveled very slowly at that time; Jms more than likely was referring to the Old Testament when he use's the word "word" in His epistle. So we cannot interpret this passage to be referring to the New Testament "cannon". It is interesting to note that in Act's 15:13-29, during the dispute about circumcision; James stand's up; quotes Amos 9:11-12, and Isa 45:21 together; then state's 4 thing's from the law that they were to abstain from (i.e. thing's contaminated by idol's, fornication (as defined in the law), strangled animals, and drinking blood.) Then reminds the apostle's that the law of Moses was well known in the gentile city’s due to the fact that Moses was read every Sabbath from "ancient generation's". And was STILL being read every Sabbath. Thus those who were ignorant could hear it any time they wanted. (but the text indicates that Moses was well known by the church their.) Hence, it wasn't necessary to send them anything more than the command's they sent.)
I conclude therefore, that insofar as Jesus and the Apostle's have not changed the law; the law is still in effect. But insofar as they have changed it; it is not valid.
1. It defines sin and righteousness.
A. Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law. (NKJ)
B. Rom 7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, "You shall not covet." (NKJ)
C. Rom 7:12 "...the law is holy, and the commandment is holy and righteous and good."
D. Rom 15:4 "For whatever was written in earlier time's was written for our instruction..."
E. I Cor 10:6-11 6 Now these things became our examples, to the intent that we should not lust after evil things as they also lusted. 7 And do not become idolaters as were some of them. As it is written, "The people sat down to eat and drink, and rose up to play." 8 Nor let us commit sexual immorality, as some of them did, and in one day twenty-three thousand fell; 9 nor let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed by serpents; 10 nor complain, as some of them also complained, and were destroyed by the destroyer. 11 Now all these things happened to them as examples, and they were written for our admonition, on whom the ends of the ages have come. (NKJ)
F. I Tim 1:8 But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully… (NKJ)
II Tim 3:16-17 16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work. (NKJ)
(alternate version's)
II Tim 3:16 Every scripture inspired of God (is) also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness. (ASV)
II Tim 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; (NAS)
II Tim 3:16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, (NIV)
H. Mt 5:17-18 17 "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. 18 "For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the aw till all is fulfilled. (NKJ)
Here is something to think about: Most people interpret this passage to mean that when all the prophesies concerning Jesus suffering and resurrection ere fulfilled that the law passed away.
In order to interpret it this way, one must believe that the word "all" does not include all of the Old Test prophesies concerning the Messiah. Hence the word "all" is not all inclusive.
There is some support for this reasoning in other passage's of scripture, and in logic. e.g. If John and 7 other people who were with him went to the Mall; We could state that they all went to the Mall. Here the term "all" does not mean that every human being on earth went to the Mall; but that John and His 7 friend's did. So the term "all" is not all inclusive; but limited in scope to the 8 people referred to in the sentence. Hence context determines whether or not the word "all" is all inclusive or not.
But in this passage; it is hard to determine the correct interpretation of this word. For if you consider the context of the rest of the New Test.; It can be reasonably concluded that the word "all" is not all inclusive. But if you isolate the verse from the rest of the New Test. The context demand's that it be interpreted as all inclusive. This, of course, would mean that every part of the law is still in effect because not all of the prophecies concerning Jesus in the Old Testament have yet been fulfilled! (Although many have been.) But according to the rest of the New Test., this cannot be true.
So may I suggest an alternate interpretation? Consider this: Being that the term "all" is all inclusive in the verse's context, and the rest of the New Testament say's that at least a portion of the law is done away with; it could be said that just as a portion of the prophecy’s have been fulfilled; and a portion have not been fulfilled; so also a portion of the Old Testament is done away with (i.e. Levitical Priesthood, Temple worship, animal sacrifice for sin, circumcision, the ark of the covenant, Passover, etc.) and a portion still remains in effect. (i.e. the moral law's of the Old Testament such as:
Deut 6:4-7 4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one! 5 "You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your strength. 6 "And these words which I command you today shall be in your heart. 7 "You shall teach them diligently to your children, and shall talk of them when you sit in your house, when you walk by the way, when you lie down, and when you rise up. (NKJ)
Mt 22:37-40 37 Jesus said to him," `You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.' 38 "This is the first and great commandment. 39 "And the second is like it: `You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' 40 "On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets." (NKJ) Mk 12:30
Lev 19:18 `You shall not take vengeance, nor bear any grudge against the children of your people, but you shall love your neighbor as yourself: I am the LORD. (NKJ)
Matt 19:19 `Honor your father and your mother,' and, ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.'" (NKJ) (Matt 22:39, Mark 12:31, Romans 13:9, Gal 5:14, James 2:8)
I could go on and on demonstrating how Old Testament laws are repeated in the New Testament ; but what has been given is sufficient to prove that the Old Testament moral law's are Still in effect today, and are to be obeyed! Of course, we cannot obey them in our own strength or effort's apart from God's power; but through His power and strength that He give's us we are to walk in obedience.
Also the Old Testament defines New Testament term's. For example: The New Test. state's that we are to abstain from sexual immorality. But it does not define sexual immorality. However it is defined for us in the Old Test. (e.g. Leviticus 18:6-24, 20:10-21 etc.) The New Testament tell's us to love God and our neighbor. The Old Test. tell's us how to do this. (as well as the New Testament to a certain degree). And so is the case with many other thing's that we are commanded to do/abstain from, in the New Testament )) (Here's something to think about: Jms 1:21-25 state's: 21 Therefore lay aside all filthiness and overflow of wickedness, and receive with meekness the implanted word, (i.e. the Old Testament, and letter's of apostle's that may have been available at the time. The "cannon" wasn't complete at this time.) WHICH IS ABLE TO SAVE YOUR SOUL'S. 22 But be doers of the word, and not hearers (or reader's) only, deceiving yourselves. 23 For if anyone is a hearer (or reader) of the word and not a doer, he is like a man observing his natural face in a mirror; 24 for he observes himself, goes away, and immediately forgets what kind of man he was.25 But he who looks into the perfect LAW OF LIBERTY (here the Old Testament is called the "perfect law of liberty") and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the WORK, THIS ONE WILL BE BLESSED in what he does. (NKJ) Now Jms. was written before A.D. 62. Matt. was written between A.D. 60-66; I Thes, A.D. 52 or 53; Gal, A.D. 56 or 57; Rom, A.D. 58; Eph, A.D. 61 or 62; Col, A.D. 61 or 62; Phil, A.D. 62 or 63; Heb, A.D. 62 or 63; I Tim, A.D. 65; Titus, A.D. 65; Jude, A.D. 65; II Tim, A.D. 68; I can't find date's for the other's. (source: Bible dict. and concordance). Hence. at the time that Jms wrote his epistle: I Thes, Gal, Rom, Eph, Col, and possibly Matt., were the ONLY New Test. book's in existence. (Book's that Jms may or may not have had copies of). And at least 9 of the New Testament Book's were either being written at the same time as Jms was; or at a later date; and being that the Jew's had synagogues in every city of the known world at that time, where the law of Moses was read every Sabbath, (Acts 15:21) And being that new's and letter's traveled very slowly at that time; Jms more than likely was referring to the Old Testament when he use's the word "word" in His epistle. So we cannot interpret this passage to be referring to the New Testament "cannon". It is interesting to note that in Act's 15:13-29, during the dispute about circumcision; James stand's up; quotes Amos 9:11-12, and Isa 45:21 together; then state's 4 thing's from the law that they were to abstain from (i.e. thing's contaminated by idol's, fornication (as defined in the law), strangled animals, and drinking blood.) Then reminds the apostle's that the law of Moses was well known in the gentile city’s due to the fact that Moses was read every Sabbath from "ancient generation's". And was STILL being read every Sabbath. Thus those who were ignorant could hear it any time they wanted. (but the text indicates that Moses was well known by the church their.) Hence, it wasn't necessary to send them anything more than the command's they sent.)
I conclude therefore, that insofar as Jesus and the Apostle's have not changed the law; the law is still in effect. But insofar as they have changed it; it is not valid.
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