Why did you put marks around the word 'individuals'? What else is there to save?
How to be Born Again
- Thread starter oyster67
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
I asked:
"Can a Jew be saved TODAY or not?"
This passage doesn't answer my question to YOU!
I know what Paul said and thinks.
I have no idea what you think.
"Can a Jew be saved TODAY or not?"
Can you just give a simple and clear yes or no??
This passage doesn't answer my question to YOU!
I know what Paul said and thinks.
I have no idea what you think.
You already agreed with my Yom Kippur point earlier right? Every year, 2 animals are sacrificed by the High priest for the sins of the nation. As a result, the entire year of sins from Israel is covered.
Why are you rejecting the corporate forgiveness of sins now?
As for your point about emptying Paradise, that is commonly believed but it is not scriptural. None of the OT saints are in heaven now, as Peter stated clearly in Acts 2 after the cross.
34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,
35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool.
Furthermore, All the OT saints are waiting for their resurrection at Jesus 2nd coming, as Daniel explained in Daniel 12
And at that time shall Michael stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy people: and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time: and at that time thy people shall be delivered, every one that shall be found written in the book.
2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
3 And they that be wise shall shine as the brightness of the firmament; and they that turn many to righteousness as the stars for ever and ever.
This is all irrelevant in light of the fact that Jesus Christ FULFILLED the Law.
Why are you living in the PAST anyway?
Acts 10:43.
Nice. Where is your Scriptural proof for your claim that I don't believe?
Do you really not have any idea WHEN that was written?? v.34 clearly states that David's soul was NOT in the 3rd heaven, where God's throne is. No OT belier's soul entered heaven UNTIL Jesus was resurrected and went to Hades and took all the saved souls to heaven.
Really? The phrase "sleep in the dust of the earth" is a reference to their DEAD physical bodies, that are awaiting resurrection.
You are badly mistaken in your misunderstanding of a lot of Scripture.
You haven't proven anything of which you claim.
It’s fine with me, few people change their minds about the doctrine they hold anyway.
We can agree to disagree
There is NO REASON to change my mind when my view is that of Scripture.
I reject your non-factual views.
And your inability to support your view from Scripture says it all.
iow, you have no defense.
I can explain to you, but I cannot understand for you.
Your insults are ridiculous, of course. They do not help you at all.
I fully understand that your view is NOT biblical at all. It is full of speculation and misunderstanding.
When the Messiah came and died for everyone, there is NO MORE distinction between Jew and Gentile. Gal 3:28 says so.
And 1 Cor 15:23 also refutes your speculations.
"But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him."
This is in reference to the resurrection. So, who, exactly, does "those who belong to Him" refer to? Do you know?
If so, please tell me.
I was not insulting you, I was just stating the reality of discussing Bible doctrine over the Internet.
Yes, you were. You were insinuating that I can't understand your explanation. Even though you haven't explained yourself, so how would you even know what I can understand.
Again, this is what you posted:
"I can explain to you, but I cannot understand for you."
By NOT offering an explanation, your snide comment insinuates that why should you bother explaining SINCE I will not understand.
So don't try to excuse yourself with "I was not insulting you". Of course you were.
If you really don't understand the meaning to the words you post, well, that's just another problem.
No, I was giving you the freedom to decide what you want to do when you encounter a doctrine that is different from yours.
If you choose not to understand, no one can force you to.
Why do you keep using your personal perspective to understand the intentions of strangers you encounter over the Internet?
Ever think that "Perhaps I have misinterpreted his intentions"?
Nonsense. Just explain yourself.
[QUOE]If you choose not to understand, no one can force you to.[/QUOTE]
Oh, just stop the snark.
Real simple. By the WORDS they use.
Your intentions are clear enough.
But, beside all that, just explain yourself. Don't worry about my abilities.
I already been patiently explaining to you throughout this thread.
If you still claim you cannot understand, its best to agree to disagree.
What you have explained I've refuted with Scripture.
What you don't have is Scripture that supports your claims.
No distinction?
1 Corinthians 10:32
“Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God:”
I said:
"When the Messiah came and died for everyone, there is NO MORE distinction between Jew and Gentile. Gal 3:28 says so."
So, here it is:
"There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
The verse you quoted, 1 For 10:32, refers to UNBELIEVERS, both Jews and Gentiles, and includes "the Church of God", that being believers.
"When the Messiah came and died for everyone, there is NO MORE distinction between Jew and Gentile. Gal 3:28 says so."
Apprently you failed to real Gal 3:28.
So, here it is:
"There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
The verse you quoted, 1 For 10:32, refers to UNBELIEVERS, both Jews and Gentiles, and includes "the Church of God", that being believers.
Yes I've read Galations. And yes I know it refers to unbelieving Jews and unbelieving Gentiles. These categories still exist out side of Christ . Thats my point . The bible still see theses distinctions. God still sees these and so should we .
Interestingly, Paul also made a distinction here between the Body of Christ and the little flock of Israel, in which the 12, James and the Jewish believers would fall under the latter, in Galatians 6
15 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature.
16 And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.
- as many as walk according to this rule: Body of Christ
- Israel of God : Little flock (Romans 9:6)
So you think I don't see any distinction among unbelievers. What's wrong with your faulty assessment?