So, if "new covenant" doesn't mean "new testament", then please define each one. Using scholarly material, and not just your own opinion.Yeah thats what the ' scholars ' tell us![]()
So, if "new covenant" doesn't mean "new testament", then please define each one. Using scholarly material, and not just your own opinion.Yeah thats what the ' scholars ' tell us![]()
What in the world are you talking about? I just explained what Jeremiah was referring to when he wrote "Israel" and "Judah".Your having to dance around to change what the bible says . It literally says ' ISRAEL '
And Hebrews 8, also Israel and Judah ?What in the world are you talking about? I just explained what Jeremiah was referring to when he wrote "Israel" and "Judah".
2 kingdoms that split from the nation. Israel was the northern kingdom and Judah was the southern kingdom.
Didn't you know that already?
Yes. Since Heb 8 is a direct quote of Jer 31, what else could it be referring to?And Hebrews 8, also Israel and Judah ?
Its referring to Israel and not us . There is only the covenant with Israel.Yes. Since Heb 8 is a direct quote of Jer 31, what else could it be referring to?
what are your thoughts?
OK, but so what? As I proved, the New Covenant, or New Testament, fulfilled that passage in Jeremiah.Its referring to Israel and not us . There is only the covenant with Israel.
As it reads in Hebrews 8 . The purpose is there .OK, but so what? As I proved, the New Covenant, or New Testament, fulfilled that passage in Jeremiah.
iow, the Messiah CAME for the Jews. They rejected the NC. Got it?
What is your view about a covenant with Israel that hasn't occurred yet? What's its purpose?
What in here do you see is applicable to us ??OK, but so what? As I proved, the New Covenant, or New Testament, fulfilled that passage in Jeremiah.
iow, the Messiah CAME for the Jews. They rejected the NC. Got it?
What is your view about a covenant with Israel that hasn't occurred yet? What's its purpose?
Do you apply eze 36 to the Church also?Yes. Since Heb 8 is a direct quote of Jer 31, what else could it be referring to?
what are your thoughts?
Still all based on faith in the Messiah. Ya can't get away from that fact.As it reads in Hebrews 8 . The purpose is there .
10For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
11And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
12For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
13¶In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
Apparently you are unfamiliar with Paul's teaching then.We haven't got laws written in our minds and hearts .
You need to read and re-read Galatians until the truth sinks in.What in here do you see is applicable to us ??
10For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
11And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
12For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
13¶In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
And that's saved gentiles is it ??Still all based on faith in the Messiah. Ya can't get away from that fact.
Apparently you are unfamiliar with Paul's teaching then.
Romans 2:14,15
14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.
15They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.)
I'd say that the Aposlte just refuted your beliefs.
Guojing has answered this question already.TF, I'm still missing what you point is.
How about this: just lay it all out for me. You know, the Heb 8 passage, which is a quote from Jer 31. What's it referring to and when will it be fulfilled?
Thanks.
Rom 2 is not referring to saved people in Christ . But rather lost Gentiles in general who don't have the law but by nature do some of the things contained in the law . This has absolutely nothing to do with regeneration or Heb 8 / JerStill all based on faith in the Messiah. Ya can't get away from that fact.
Apparently you are unfamiliar with Paul's teaching then.
Romans 2:14,15
14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law.
15They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.)
I'd say that the Aposlte just refuted your beliefs.
Why would it have to satisfy your own insecurities?
Does John 3:16 make reference to Christ's sacrifice for sin? Of course it does. And the results as well. And Jesus was clear about His sacrifice for sin in Luke 22:20, which it seems you either don't understand or believe.
I did. And I showed the context, plus the fact that it was a quote from Jeremiah, who wrote between 627-580 BC. At that time, the Jewish nation had split into 2 kingdoms, Israel the northren kingdom and Judah, the southern kingdom.
It was fulfilled when Christ came and went to the cross.
I don't understand why that isn't clear to others.
Do you believe that there will be a separate covenant with Israel in the future? So, when would that actually be? Be specific and include Scripture that supports your claim.
No need. I do understand that. But what I don't understand is your single focus on it?
Yep. So what are you suggesting? That obedience to the conditions of the OC would save anyone?
Did you not read any of the verses I shared? I have proved from Gal 3 that the Law never saved anyone.
The leaders in Acts 7 were unbelievers. What they did has NO RELEVANCE to the NC. Why do you think otherwise?
OH, good grief! Well, it's clear that either you did not read the verses I shared, or you don't understand that they teach.
Jesus FULFILLED the NC in His blood. Do you understand what "blood" means? Perhaps not.
Saved anyone. Why single out Gentiles?And that's saved gentiles is it ??
He's your spokesman?Guojing has answered this question already.
Correct. My point is that God has given everyone a conscience to know right from wrong.Rom 2 is not referring to saved people in Christ .
So, again, what's your point? Is there one?But rather lost Gentiles in general who don't have the law but by nature do some of the things contained in the law . This has absolutely nothing to do with regeneration or Heb 8 / Jer