Does it further follow that each individual member of that body receives exactly what every other member of that body receives? Not necessarily.
I agree. And we see these analogies with comparisons of different parts of the body having different offices of duty/domain. An eye to an ear, etc.
The context of the Galatians passage was "righteousness/Justification", not an all-encompassing statement also including property or land ownership.
Individuals certainly retain individuality, and the ability to honour their respective fathers and mothers. And from that there can be culture that is rolled from one generation to the next (there's a caveat with this).
It might be the case that one person in Christ is born in Africa and inhabits that part of the world, and another person in Christ is born in Japan and inhabits that other part of the world. Each can belong to a different 'member' (tongue, eye, etc.) in the Body of Christ, and therefore have different missions, purposes, and focuses in life, but nothing is stopping someone from being reassigned a membership. The division between these memberships is not based on genetics. These kinds of divisions were an issue that Paul addresses when he rebukes Peter. The caveat with being able to carry-forward one's historical culture is that it cannot interfere with the unity of the Body of Christ.
There are also different responsibilities given to different members of the body whether Jew or Gentile...
This is a point I disagree with. It might be the case that a person with apparent Jewish ancestry and a person without apparent Jewish ancestry have different missions in life. The differences in mission aren't themselves based on genetic ancestry as a hard dividing line.
Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear?
It's not as though "the yoke" was something obligated by Christian of Jewish heritage nor by Christians without Jewish heritage. The truth is that neither group was obligated to follow these ordinances by some letter of law. One should follow what their faith leads them to believe is right for them, regardless of whether they were Jew or Gentile. This passage isn't a dividing line between Jew and Gentile, it's a caution not to impose something on others even though it might be right for you (based on what your faith calls you to do) but not in fact may not be right for someone else (based on what their faith calls them to do). It can result in individuals rejecting the assembly because they are being asked to do something that is against their faith. A broader conversation about an aspect of this exists in Romans 14. And especially if we approach Romans 14's reference to food as a metaphor for cultural teachings and practices, the message becomes clear.
Instead we should write to them, telling them to abstain from food polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from the meat of strangled animals and from blood.
These ordinances may in fact be specific to the target Gentile group being written to in this case.
Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.
The law in Christ. And this has to do with how the priesthoods work and the fact that the ordinances of the law change, but the spirit of the law (righteousness) remains the same. The spirit of the law was never removed, only the old covenant ordinances under the old priesthood (now taken over by Christ as the eternal head priest).
All MUST have faith first, but it's the Jew BY faith (as they abide in the law entrusted to them; not to be confused with "works of the law" i.e. animal sacrifices), and the Gentile THROUGH faith (who weren't originally given the law).
The quoted interpretation does not hold water when we consider it was a nonissue for Paul and other Jewish converts not to follow the old covenant ordinances of the law.
"To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law." - 1 Cor 9:21 KJV
Within Christianity, those of Jewish heritage were only required to adhere to provisions if their sense of faith led them to it. And even then, we come back to Paul's rebuke of Peter. There are limitations for what is permissible. Internal checks and balances in the Body of Christ.
Jew BY faith [...] Gentile THROUGH faith (who weren't originally given the law).
"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:" - Romans 2:14 KJV
Gentiles always had law.
I feel that I don't quite understand this "BY" vs. "THROUGH" nuance you are trying to illustrate. If it is premised on the idea that Gentiles were without a law, I would disagree (but certainly they would have been without the OT law ordinances). It may not have been the same law as OT Hebrews and Jews, but it was a law nonetheless. And now under Christ, both groups are under the same law (the law of Christ).
So hopefully I've established a solid foundation that we can agree upon before we dive into an OT promise specifically for Israel.
I think we agree that differences exist between Christians in terms of their missions in life, but I think we disagree on the nature of that divisions. In a post-crucifixion world, I don't agree with the premise that ethnicity would be a dividing factor that would determine categories of missions. I believe that God can lead you to whatever mission in life irrespective of genetics. And if the seed promises are all to Christ and the Body of Christ, it wouldn't matter which genetics you come from. It's not as though "only Christians of Jewish ancestry" perform some range of functions and "only Christians of nonJewish ancestry" perform a separate range of functions. I see no Biblical evidence for that even if it were possible to somehow determine perfect genealogies for every Christian alive today.
