How is the KJV corrupt?
- Thread starter TheLearner
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That has nothing to do with the subject. The KJV is a translation of God's word. It is not the actual words of Jesus, the apostles and the prophets. If you are that keen, learn Hebrew and Greek.
And why learn Hebrew and Greek? Do we have the originals? Even if we did, the KJV translators were far superior in their knowledge of the languages than any today.
Utter garbage. Far more is known about Hebrew especially. Somehow the KJV has an utterly undeserved reputation (with some) of being God's word exclusively. It's just not true. Sure, it sounds impressive and deeply religious. It is also baffling to those without an upbringing in Elizabethan English. It baffled me.
I've managed, I suppose by some kind of miracle, to live my Christian life without reference to the KJV. Neither have I learned Hebrew and Greek. I have the indwelling Holy Spirit. It's His job to teach me and to lead me into all truth.
It is the version I normally quote on the forum. I think it is accurate, not falling into the interpretation trap, but readable as well. The NIV is a little too much interpretation. The NASB is accurate but hard to read.
Having said that, the best Bible is the one that you actually read and study.
You are obviously a brilliant scholar and you know more than all the linguistic experts put together. Since they are irresponsible and have some kind of hidden agenda to deceive the church and send us all to hell, why don't you produce your own version?
To be precise, the KJV is a translation of God's word. Do you think that Lord Jesus would speak King Jamesese if He came to America today and preached? No. He would speak in words that anyone with a grasp of English would understand. He would speak the native tongue of whatever nation he preached to.
Christians are not necessarily English speaking. There are German and French, Chinese and Italian Bibles. There are Russian Bibles. Are they disqualified because they are not KJV? Of course not. So what is wrong with translations that are written in the English of today? Answer: nothing. There is very little difference between any of the translations where it matters.
Does the Spirit lead you to all truth even when your bible has missing verses and false truth?
Really? Then how is it that they were unaware of the Granville Sharp rule? Your assertion is ridiculously devoid of reality.
You did mean Galatians 2:20?:
"I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me."—KJV
"I have been crucified with Christ; and it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself up for me."—NASB
"I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me."—ESV
"I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I now live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me."—NIV
"I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me, and gave Himself for me."—English Majority Text Version
"I have been crucified with Christ, and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. And that which I now live in the flesh, I live through faith from the Son of God, the One having loved me and having given up Himself for me."—Berean Literal Bible
Actually, they all say the same thing as the KJV. I don't get what you mean by the "others get wrong."
Perhaps Abs is speaking to the the difference in prepositions used, KJV's "of" the Son, Berean's "from" the Son, and the others' "in" the Son?
Just thought we are talking about the English scripture and not the Hebrew or Greek. Give you just s basic about translation if you may, that when Jesus and the Apostles quoted the Old Testament Hebrew text, the apostles being the writer have written it in Greek would constitute of what we call translation. Hence translation is the word of God.
I can agree with you that the translation is still the word of God. However, any translation of the word of God is the word of God. That is not exclusive to the KJV, no matter what the onlyists choose to believe.
Just wondering, why baffled with Kjb English? Is it because of its antiquity? Do you not realize the the Hebrew or Greek is more antiquated and considered to be of the dead language? i believe those language were once chose by God to have its use being the common language of their time. God uses language to proclaim his very purpose to all the world and God is using the English to spread the his word.
Thank you Dino, if it is the word of God therefore it is inerrant, infallible, pure which is truly the claim of every Pro or anti Kjb must be tested. Claims of the kjb proponents have "a more sure word of prophecy". If we are honest to say that all other Modern English Bibles are the same with sureness as the claims of the Kjb, then that would be just fine yet, most them as I observed says something like just an accurate translation. Accuracy has nothing to do with the perfection.
Since the KJV is demonstrably not perfect, that subject is off the table.