How is the KJV corrupt?
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What do you mean by corrupt?
Best translation? Not?
The New Testament was originally in Koine Greek. Not easy to draft a literal second language translation given the Greek language.
I kept this link when I found it last year. I think the author gives a pretty good overview of why the KJV is a good translation of the NT Koine Greek but for obvious reasons, cannot be the most literal. No English translation could be.
https://www.quora.com/Is-the-King-James-Bible-of-1611-the-most-accurate-of-all-Bibles
Is the King James Bible of 1611 the most accurate of all Bibles?
Alan Green
, former Software Development, System Development at Medicine and Healthcare
Updated Apr 10, 2018
The answer is no. But let me explain this.
If you had “literally” a literal word for word translation from the ancient languages, it would make it very hard to read and get the sense of it.
Let me give an example. I picked a [verse] (edit that, I picked a book and a chapter, then picked a verse)
Here is just one verse in Greek, from Luke 19:12.
ειπεν ουν ανθρωπος τις ευγενης επορευθη εις χωραν μακραν λαβειν εαυτω βασιλειαν και υποστρεψαι
Ok if you understand Greek! now here is the literal translation
(more than one English word may be need to replace one Greek word, to show this multiple words will be [linked] as-thus with a hyphen for each Greek word)
Greek/Hebrew interlinear Bible software
Now I think you can see the problem, a translator (more likely a group of translators) cannot just replace Greek words with the literal English equivalent.
The translators have to say it in English to give the sense and meaning of the writer to his audience. This requires not only an exquisite understanding of the Greek language, but an expert grasp of English, the ability to express words with the the nuance and beauty of a poet, with a knowledge of the background, of the idiom, of the locale, the customs and styles of the original writers.
This is not a task that a machine could do, it needs humans, with knowledge, faith, skill and respect of the words.
Now here is the English, written in the style of the beautiful Elizabethan English of the King Jame’s translation.
The KJV does have it’s problems, with it’s old fashioned word order, and some “Archaic” words (I get greatly offended as being archaic, I used to go shopping in the Shambles, Chesterfield UK, every weekend!)
To compare some other versions, here is the same verse again.
YLT - He said therefore, `A certain man of birth went on to a far country, to take to himself a kingdom, and to return
AMP - He therefore said, A certain nobleman went into a distant country to obtain for himself a kingdom and then to return
ISV - So he said, "A prince went to a distant country to be appointed king and then to return
ERV - So he said, "A very important man was preparing to go to a country far away to be made a king. Then he planned to return home and rule his people
BBE - So he said, A certain man of high birth went into a far-away country to get a kingdom for himself, and to come back
Murdock - And he said: A certain man of high birth was going to a distant place, to obtain royalty, and return again.
Most of these have problems.
Are any of these much easier to read than the KJV? not really, some are very “flat”, especially the Murdoch.
And some of them are downright inaccurate.
Jesus was giving a parable, a story, to an audience that already knew certain things. For instance, under the rule of the Romans, any authority to rule (as a proxy for the Emperor) was given to the would be ruler, after he travelled to Rome, he was given the authority there, then he would return to begin his rule.
The audience were aware of this.
So the nobleman (human well-generated) not an important person, not a prince, not a man of birth - but a man who was well-born/generated a NOBLEMAN
went to a far country to RECEIVE a kingdom, not take, not obtain, receive is PASSIVE showing that it was not of his doing, otherwise you might think he won a kingdom or title in battle!
The ERV (easy reading version) says “Then he planned to return home and rule his people” that may be exactly what he planned, but, THE GREEK TEXT DOES NOT SAY THAT - none of the “planning to return and rule” exists in the Greek, it came out of the translators head. In this case it doesn’t matter so much, bit in other cases, it might change the meaning.
There is a range of accuracy in Bible translation;
From the PARAPHRASE on the one end of the scale,
and the hyper-literal WORD-FOR-WORD on the other.
BIBLICAL ACCURACY does not depend on a 100% mechanical translation, it is conveying the CORRECT SENSE of what the author was telling the audience (in their context and understanding) while trying to maintain readability and using fewer and shorter words, for simplicity and conciseness. There is NO Bible which is the most accurate.
THE BOTTOM LINE in ways explained above, the King James Bible is a very accurate translation, but not the MOST accurate.
Any words in CAPITALS or bold or italic, are for emphasis - I am not shouting at you
Robert Gibbs
, Dedicated Christian minister (1974-present)
Answered Mar 23, 2018
Far from it. The Emphatic Diaglott, (a diaglot is a two-language translation), is a translation of the Christian Greek scriptures (New Testament) by Benjamin Wilson, first published in 1864. It is an interlinear with the original Greek text and a word for word English translation in the left column, with a full English translation in the right column. The following is an excerpt from comments made by the translator in the Foreword, regarding the accuracy of the King James Version.
Best translation? Not?
The New Testament was originally in Koine Greek. Not easy to draft a literal second language translation given the Greek language.
I kept this link when I found it last year. I think the author gives a pretty good overview of why the KJV is a good translation of the NT Koine Greek but for obvious reasons, cannot be the most literal. No English translation could be.
https://www.quora.com/Is-the-King-James-Bible-of-1611-the-most-accurate-of-all-Bibles
Is the King James Bible of 1611 the most accurate of all Bibles?
Alan Green
, former Software Development, System Development at Medicine and Healthcare
Updated Apr 10, 2018
The answer is no. But let me explain this.
If you had “literally” a literal word for word translation from the ancient languages, it would make it very hard to read and get the sense of it.
Let me give an example. I picked a [verse] (edit that, I picked a book and a chapter, then picked a verse)
Here is just one verse in Greek, from Luke 19:12.
ειπεν ουν ανθρωπος τις ευγενης επορευθη εις χωραν μακραν λαβειν εαυτω βασιλειαν και υποστρεψαι
Ok if you understand Greek! now here is the literal translation
(more than one English word may be need to replace one Greek word, to show this multiple words will be [linked] as-thus with a hyphen for each Greek word)
he-said then human any well-generated was-gone into space far to-be-getting to-himself kingdom and to-under-turn.
So there you have the most accurate bible translation, many thanks to the “Inter Scripture Analyser program 3 Beta. Scripture4All PublishingGreek/Hebrew interlinear Bible software
Now I think you can see the problem, a translator (more likely a group of translators) cannot just replace Greek words with the literal English equivalent.
The translators have to say it in English to give the sense and meaning of the writer to his audience. This requires not only an exquisite understanding of the Greek language, but an expert grasp of English, the ability to express words with the the nuance and beauty of a poet, with a knowledge of the background, of the idiom, of the locale, the customs and styles of the original writers.
This is not a task that a machine could do, it needs humans, with knowledge, faith, skill and respect of the words.
Now here is the English, written in the style of the beautiful Elizabethan English of the King Jame’s translation.
Luke 19:12 KJV - He said therefore, A certain nobleman went into a far country to receive for himself a kingdom, and to return.
It still captures the meaning, the rhythm of the original Greek and it is easy to read. There is a system which “scores” samples of text for “readability” and it may surprise a lot of people, but the King James Bible is rated as easier to read than most modern versions, (as far as the number of words used to communicate an idea)The KJV does have it’s problems, with it’s old fashioned word order, and some “Archaic” words (I get greatly offended as being archaic, I used to go shopping in the Shambles, Chesterfield UK, every weekend!)
To compare some other versions, here is the same verse again.
YLT - He said therefore, `A certain man of birth went on to a far country, to take to himself a kingdom, and to return
AMP - He therefore said, A certain nobleman went into a distant country to obtain for himself a kingdom and then to return
ISV - So he said, "A prince went to a distant country to be appointed king and then to return
ERV - So he said, "A very important man was preparing to go to a country far away to be made a king. Then he planned to return home and rule his people
BBE - So he said, A certain man of high birth went into a far-away country to get a kingdom for himself, and to come back
Murdock - And he said: A certain man of high birth was going to a distant place, to obtain royalty, and return again.
Most of these have problems.
Are any of these much easier to read than the KJV? not really, some are very “flat”, especially the Murdoch.
And some of them are downright inaccurate.
Jesus was giving a parable, a story, to an audience that already knew certain things. For instance, under the rule of the Romans, any authority to rule (as a proxy for the Emperor) was given to the would be ruler, after he travelled to Rome, he was given the authority there, then he would return to begin his rule.
The audience were aware of this.
So the nobleman (human well-generated) not an important person, not a prince, not a man of birth - but a man who was well-born/generated a NOBLEMAN
went to a far country to RECEIVE a kingdom, not take, not obtain, receive is PASSIVE showing that it was not of his doing, otherwise you might think he won a kingdom or title in battle!
The ERV (easy reading version) says “Then he planned to return home and rule his people” that may be exactly what he planned, but, THE GREEK TEXT DOES NOT SAY THAT - none of the “planning to return and rule” exists in the Greek, it came out of the translators head. In this case it doesn’t matter so much, bit in other cases, it might change the meaning.
There is a range of accuracy in Bible translation;
From the PARAPHRASE on the one end of the scale,
and the hyper-literal WORD-FOR-WORD on the other.
BIBLICAL ACCURACY does not depend on a 100% mechanical translation, it is conveying the CORRECT SENSE of what the author was telling the audience (in their context and understanding) while trying to maintain readability and using fewer and shorter words, for simplicity and conciseness. There is NO Bible which is the most accurate.
THE BOTTOM LINE in ways explained above, the King James Bible is a very accurate translation, but not the MOST accurate.
Any words in CAPITALS or bold or italic, are for emphasis - I am not shouting at you
Robert Gibbs
, Dedicated Christian minister (1974-present)
Answered Mar 23, 2018
Far from it. The Emphatic Diaglott, (a diaglot is a two-language translation), is a translation of the Christian Greek scriptures (New Testament) by Benjamin Wilson, first published in 1864. It is an interlinear with the original Greek text and a word for word English translation in the left column, with a full English translation in the right column. The following is an excerpt from comments made by the translator in the Foreword, regarding the accuracy of the King James Version.
This translation [The King James Version] was perhaps the best that could be made at the time, and if it had not been published by kingly authority. it would not now be venerated by English and American protestants, as though it had come direct from God. It has been convicted of containing over 20,000 errors. Nearly 700 Greek MSS. are now known, and some of them very ancient; Whereas the translators of the common version had only the advantage of some 8 MSS., none of which were earlier than the tenth century.
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it isn’t God promised his word would be preached to all people that’s why we have translations into English at all that’s his word being fulfilled
it’s not his word that gets corrupted but the heart and mind of those who can’t hear his word. Man was corrupted Gods word is still the same in any language
it’s not his word that gets corrupted but the heart and mind of those who can’t hear his word. Man was corrupted Gods word is still the same in any language
luke was written about 50-60 ad less than 30 years after the crucifixion. Remember since Moses Gods word was written down by his people
they were recording it all along , for instance all the epistles are letters written at the time to the churches At the time thier writings make up the New Testament they didn’t wrote these things hundreds of years later they were sending written letters to the church at the very time these things were being established
If your talking about the gathering of all these letters and writings together and being presented together in one I agree but to think they didn’t write these things as the church began is not at all correct
The New Testament writings were already in circulation as they lived and the word began to spread
“And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.”
2 Peter 3:15-16
just like the ot they were written and recorded and copies were made as time went on like scribes it’s always been written since they wrote them.
they were recording it all along , for instance all the epistles are letters written at the time to the churches At the time thier writings make up the New Testament they didn’t wrote these things hundreds of years later they were sending written letters to the church at the very time these things were being established
If your talking about the gathering of all these letters and writings together and being presented together in one I agree but to think they didn’t write these things as the church began is not at all correct
The New Testament writings were already in circulation as they lived and the word began to spread
“And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.”
2 Peter 3:15-16
just like the ot they were written and recorded and copies were made as time went on like scribes it’s always been written since they wrote them.
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you mean the gospel isn’t in scripture ? How does one seperate the gospel they preached from the gospel that’s recorded by those who preached the message and wrote it down ?
the true messa he is in scripture brother it’s what the whole Bible is about the message of Jesus Christ ot was written even in the ot ancient scriptures
God is the one who caused the Bible to be what it is today so we don’t have to trust in any man and his interpretations we have Jesus and his wisdom and truth tomlewrn and spread into the world we can trust scripture and know that’s the true and everlasting message of the gospel
the true messa he is in scripture brother it’s what the whole Bible is about the message of Jesus Christ ot was written even in the ot ancient scriptures
God is the one who caused the Bible to be what it is today so we don’t have to trust in any man and his interpretations we have Jesus and his wisdom and truth tomlewrn and spread into the world we can trust scripture and know that’s the true and everlasting message of the gospel
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I rarely refer to the KJV. The language is 17th century, grammar and word meanings have changed a lot in the centuries since. For example, "Conversation" to us means talking. In the KJV, it means way of life. I've heard false teaching based on conversation as meant by the KJV. It's not the translator's fault, times have changed.
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“And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.”
Matthew 24:14 KJV
it’s the gospel Jesus preached that was sent out as a witness it isn’t reduced to saying Jesus died and rose now we’re all saved it’s his word
“And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.”
Matthew 28:18-20 KJV
His word that offers salvation was sent by his Will into the earth into all nations in order to hear it in all nations you have to hear it in your own language God is the one who decreed it and it’s why we have four accounts of the gospel
the death of Christ and his resurrection are of course an important aspect but his word is the same importance it’s Gods word that will Never change never pass away and will judge all mankind
We can hear his word sent out from Jerusalem and believe now and be saved from condemnation and death
“Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.”
John 5:24 KJV
or we can reject his word me be judged by his word in the end because it is the word of almighty God telling us how to be saved
“He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.”
John 12:48-50 KJV
the message of what Jesus did for us on the cross is nothing without the message of the empty tomb he left behind or the life giving word he spoke and said believe and be saved
Matthew 24:14 KJV
it’s the gospel Jesus preached that was sent out as a witness it isn’t reduced to saying Jesus died and rose now we’re all saved it’s his word
“And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.”
Matthew 28:18-20 KJV
His word that offers salvation was sent by his Will into the earth into all nations in order to hear it in all nations you have to hear it in your own language God is the one who decreed it and it’s why we have four accounts of the gospel
the death of Christ and his resurrection are of course an important aspect but his word is the same importance it’s Gods word that will Never change never pass away and will judge all mankind
We can hear his word sent out from Jerusalem and believe now and be saved from condemnation and death
“Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.”
John 5:24 KJV
or we can reject his word me be judged by his word in the end because it is the word of almighty God telling us how to be saved
“He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.”
John 12:48-50 KJV
the message of what Jesus did for us on the cross is nothing without the message of the empty tomb he left behind or the life giving word he spoke and said believe and be saved
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yep that’s the place to begin for sure but to then reject the word of almighty God that offers eternal life and escape from condemnation isn’t the message at all of Jesus death and resurrection and belief in him leads one to reject the gospel of the kingdom that offers life it’s gotten off track somewhere along the way it’s meant to bring us close to Christ in belief and accepting his word that saves us and assures us and rebukes us and calls us to repentance and eternal life
but I really don’t want to get back into the grace grace explaination of how Paul preached a different unconditional gospel I left that idea behind many years ago
but I really don’t want to get back into the grace grace explaination of how Paul preached a different unconditional gospel I left that idea behind many years ago
