I'm not going to go into the whole thing explaining the argument, but has anyone deeply studied this and the context of Paul's Corinthians fornicators comments in the NT at the time? I started researching it when I was reading about one of the Old Testament patriarchs wives dying and it said he went unto a prostitute, and then the story continued.
I was blown away like wait shouldn't you punish him God or scold him? Yet none of the above happened. Then reading about customs back then all the Adultery marriage laws were basically property rights. Even rape wasn't considered a Sin, but just a legal property right. Jewish man were allowed to have sex with unmarried women, and even prostitutes like nothing. Adultery in the context only meant having sex with another man's wife. The only command was against sleeping with temple prostitutes basically ritual sex idolatry. Concubines...... basically unmarried women whom they just had sex with.....
So could Paul's NT comments refer to the same practice as above for the single people? Especially due to Corinth having massive temple prostitutes running around? Anyone study this in depth? I saw an answer about the definition of the word pornea and how it came to include all sex outside of marriage, but it seems like it's a massive 360 to what Jews were practicing during the same time frame.....
A reasonable conclusion I read was not a sin, but it's not gods will. There are things that aren't necessarily labeled as Sin, but it doesn't mean God wants you to live that sort of lifestyle.
Please keep it biblical I know this is a very controversial topic, please for the love of God don't start fighting amongst each-other.
I was blown away like wait shouldn't you punish him God or scold him? Yet none of the above happened. Then reading about customs back then all the Adultery marriage laws were basically property rights. Even rape wasn't considered a Sin, but just a legal property right. Jewish man were allowed to have sex with unmarried women, and even prostitutes like nothing. Adultery in the context only meant having sex with another man's wife. The only command was against sleeping with temple prostitutes basically ritual sex idolatry. Concubines...... basically unmarried women whom they just had sex with.....
So could Paul's NT comments refer to the same practice as above for the single people? Especially due to Corinth having massive temple prostitutes running around? Anyone study this in depth? I saw an answer about the definition of the word pornea and how it came to include all sex outside of marriage, but it seems like it's a massive 360 to what Jews were practicing during the same time frame.....
A reasonable conclusion I read was not a sin, but it's not gods will. There are things that aren't necessarily labeled as Sin, but it doesn't mean God wants you to live that sort of lifestyle.
Please keep it biblical I know this is a very controversial topic, please for the love of God don't start fighting amongst each-other.
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