I will start this out with I have NO tack, sorry if I seem rude in any why.
Are you implying that Ephesians 5:26 is saying what?
If we read HIS word our sins are goon?
Mark 1:4 says what it says.
How does GOD remove our sins?
Matthew 3:13-17
King James Version
13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.
14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:
17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
Why would JESUS go to John to be baptized?
Verse 15 to fulfil all righteousness!
Like JESUS was baptized to full all righteousness we also, it's a commandment and the ONLY way for us to remove our sins.
As we are bring obedient to HIS word, he is also being obedient to HIS word and forgiving our sins.
1 Peter 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
Could the OT saints have forgiveness of sins?