pardon me, but that's not the question that was posed.
You don't believe Jesus is the almighty God do you?
'great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh'
OT Jehovah is Jesus pre-incarnation:
Zech 12:8-10 Identifies Jehovah with Jesus Christ
8) The LORD (Jehovah) defend the inhabitants of Jerusalem; & he that is feeble among them at that day shall be as David; & the house of David shall be as God, as the angel of the LORD before them
9) it shall come to pass in that day, "I" will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem
10) I will pour upon the house of David, & upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace & of supplications & they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, & they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, & shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his first born
In verse 8 the LORD, (Jehovah), is speaking. In verses 9 & 10 the pronoun, "I", refers to the same LORD, or Jehovah "I" will seek to destroy & "I" will pout out upon the house of David
"""Here's the real key"""
Vs 10 they shall look upon me (Jehovah) whom they pierced & they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, & shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his first born
Clearly, Jehovah is stating He vis the One that shall be pierced & mourned for.
Jesus is the pre-incarnation OT Jehovah:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(NOTE: Jesus is the Word Rev 19:13)
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
(NOTE: The Word/Jesus that was with & was God created all things)
10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
(NOTE: The Word/Jesus that was with & was God created the world)
14 (A) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,
(NOTE: The pre-existing Word/Jesus became flesh)
Jn 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
(NOTE: See Ex 3:14)
Actually the heavenly host were the first to celebrate His birth...not man.The Lord asked us, in the OT to celebrate all the steps in salvation with feasting, but God didn't ask us to celebrate his birth as a human. It was purely the idea of man to do that.
Read all of Psalm 22! Here are some excerpts from this prophetic psalm.
"My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
Why are you so far from saving me,
so far from my cries of anguish?
2 My God, I cry out by day, but you do not answer,
by night, but I find no rest." Psalm 22:1-2
"Dogs surround me,
a pack of villains encircles me;
they pierce my hands and my feet.
17 All my bones are on display;
people stare and gloat over me.
18 They divide my clothes among them
and cast lots for my garment." Psalm 22:16-18
Here are more prophecies of Jesus from Isa 53.
"53 Who has believed our message
and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?
2 He grew up before him like a tender shoot,
and like a root out of dry ground.
He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him,
nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.
3 He was despised and rejected by mankind,
a man of suffering, and familiar with pain.
Like one from whom people hide their faces
he was despised, and we held him in low esteem.
4 Surely he took up our pain
and bore our suffering,
yet we considered him punished by God,
stricken by him, and afflicted.
5 But he was pierced for our transgressions,
he was crushed for our iniquities;
the punishment that brought us peace was on him,
and by his wounds we are healed.
6 We all, like sheep, have gone astray,
each of us has turned to our own way;
and the Lord has laid on him
the iniquity of us all.
7 He was oppressed and afflicted,
yet he did not open his mouth;
he was led like a lamb to the slaughter,
and as a sheep before its shearers is silent,
so he did not open his mouth.
8 By oppression and judgment he was taken away.
Yet who of his generation protested?
For he was cut off from the land of the living;
for the transgression of my people he was punished.
9 He was assigned a grave with the wicked,
and with the rich in his death,
though he had done no violence,
nor was any deceit in his mouth.
10 Yet it was the Lord’s will to crush him and cause him to suffer,
and though the Lord makes his life an offering for sin,
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
and the will of the Lord will prosper in his hand.
11 After he has suffered,
he will see the light of life and be satisfied;
by his knowledge my righteous servant will justify many,
and he will bear their iniquities.
12 Therefore I will give him a portion among the great,
and he will divide the spoils with the strong,
because he poured out his life unto death,
and was numbered with the transgressors.
For he bore the sin of many,
and made intercession for the transgressors." Isa 53:1-12
That's why they skip Isaiah 53 in sinagogues as they read the Bible books all year round this particular chapter was commanded by the rabbis to be skipped. They take away from the Word of God! They refuse to see that the Messiah would also suffer (as if that means that God is some loser) and still wait for a kingdom of this world as if an earthen kingdom is not going to perish with all things even if it came. Makes me so sad that the people are being lied to and they hide their Yeshua Messiah from them.
Amen. I think just in the last year Messianic Jews increased 300%, but definitely this is the numbers for "as of recently" I read it somewhere.The Jews are busy turning to Yeshua at a rapid rate... our King is on his way
Amen. I think just in the last year Messianic Jews increased 300%, but definitely this is the numbers for "as of recently" I read it somewhere.
I told iamsoandso how I would respond to his question if it had been asked of me.
¡sí claro!
the usefulness of the NET is in its footnotes, not its translation.
here are the notes for John 20:28; you may be interested in ignoring them
sn Should Thomas’ exclamation be understood as two subjects with the rest of the sentence omitted (“My Lord and my God has truly risen from the dead”), as predicate nominatives (“You are my Lord and my God”), or as vocatives (“My Lord and my God!”)? Probably the most likely is something between the second and third alternatives. It seems that the second is slightly more likely here because the context appears confessional. Thomas’ statement, while it may have been an exclamation, does in fact confess the faith which he had previously lacked, and Jesus responds to Thomas’ statement in the following verse as if it were a confession. With the proclamation by Thomas here, it is difficult to see how any more profound analysis of Jesus’ person could be given. It echoes 1:1 and 1:14 together: The Word was God, and the Word became flesh (Jesus of Nazareth). The Fourth Gospel opened with many other titles for Jesus: the Lamb of God (1:29, 36); the Son of God (1:34, 49); Rabbi (1:38); Messiah (1:41); the King of Israel (1:49); the Son of Man (1:51). Now the climax is reached with the proclamation by Thomas, “My Lord and my God,” and the reader has come full circle from 1:1, where the author had introduced him to who Jesus was, to 20:28, where the last of the disciples has come to the full realization of who Jesus was. What Jesus had predicted in John 8:28 had come to pass: “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he” (Grk “I am”). By being lifted up in crucifixion (which led in turn to his death, resurrection, and exaltation with the Father) Jesus has revealed his true identity as both Lord (κύριος [kurios], used by the LXX to translate Yahweh) and God (θεός [theos], used by the LXX to translate Elohim).
The Jews are busy turning to Yeshua at a rapid rate... our King is on his way
There is a new universal church where Jews and gentiles meet together accepting both the Father and Christ as one.
From Jews point of view,
How to prove the following from old testament (not from new testament)?
1. How to prove that God would born as a human, and the human can be worshipped as God?
2. How to prove that Messiah should be the God, but not just a man anointed by God?
Psalms 22 and Isaiah 53 explain about the suffering, but do not answer the above I think.
As with all commentary (which is what the footnotes are) and all translations, the NET has its strengths and weaknesses.the usefulness of the NET is in its footnotes, not its translation.
here are the notes for John 20:28; you may be interested in ignoring them![]()
Psalms 22 and Isaiah 53 explains; "God is not man" (Impossible) . He remains without mother or father, without beginning of Spirit life or end thereof.
Jesus as the Son of man was a man who did the will of the father that abided in his earthen body of death. He did not do the will of the corrupted flesh as a prophet, apostle.
Well garee, since Jesus is the Son of Man which denotes He is just a man according to you, then please explain the Jewish "idiom" what it means that Jesus is "The Son of God?" PS: Where in the Bible does it say God cannot become a man or is not a man?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Thanks. I understand the trinitarian explanation of the verses you’ve quoted. The OP was asking about how Jews understand the OT.