1. Apparently he would since he did, and no it can't be changed, I would know, I'm bisexual.
God did not create us evil. He created us with the capability of evil so that we may choose.
2. Do you honestly think that the Bible was completely written by God..
I can't answer fo Peachetty, but form my observation, most Christians who adhere to the infallablity of Scripture, do not believe God used is heavenly quill to write the New International Version, or any bible for that matter. The only thing God physicall wrote, was the Ten Commandments with Moses as is accounted for in Exodus 34:1 and 34:28.
Exodus 34
The New Stone Tablets
1 The LORD said to Moses, “Chisel out two stone tablets like the first ones, and I will write on them the words that were on the first tablets, which you broke.
28 Moses was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights without eating bread or drinking water. And he wrote on the tablets the words of the covenant—the Ten Commandments.
Yes, some of it may have been true
I believe it cover to cover. Theres evidence for more of it than you might think.
, but it was written by men, so the views are gonna be different and what was put in the bible is what the men thought was wrong, not what Jesus did.
For the Trinitarian, Jesus is God in the flesh. As such the OT God would be by proxy Jesus, based on the Trinity. It's not easy to understand. As far as men writing it, yes, that is true. The only part where men can influence, is in the translation process. The original Manuscripts were written by men who had the inspiration of God. Basically, God indicated what to write, how he did I don't recall. Compare the writings of Paul and other NT books to the four Synoptic Gospels.
The doctrine of the inspiration of the Bible means that the Bible in the original documents is God-breathed, that it is a divine product, and, because it is divine, the original documents are inerrant. The copies of those documents are not inspired. We have copies of inspired documents.
2 Tim. 3:16-17 says, "All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17 that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." Paul who wrote this epistle was obviously referring to the entirety of the Old Testament as being inspired. The word "inspired" is literally "God-breathed." This is an interesting phrase, since it implies that the Scriptures are from the mouth of God. Likewise, Peter says in
2 Pet. 1:21, "for no prophecy was ever made by an act of human will, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God." Notice that Peter is stating that prophecy is not the product of human will. Instead, prophecy occurs by those moved by the Holy Spirit.
Is the Bible inspired? | Christian Apologetics and Research Ministry <--- more on inspiration
https://school.carm.org/amember/files/demo2/equip.htm <--- click on "Is the bible reliable?"
The bible says that's it's ok to sell your daughter into slavery
This is a myth based on misinformation of the passage...
7 “If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as male servants do.
8 If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself,
[b] he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her.
9 If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter.
10 If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.
11 If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money.
If you notice it says in the first line, that the female is not to go free as the male. Given that in the OT times, females could not own property, if a male had the male slave for sexual purposes that would have been Sodomy, and a a big no-no in OT society. Almost worthy of death you could say. Let alone, if he were buying her for a sex-slave, this would take away from her virginity, and to give her ot his son, from my understanding is another big no-no. Adultery, almost worth of death you could say. In fact, if you want to get relativistic, this passage grants more than slavery has in other societies. If he gives her to his son as a wife, she must be treated and given the rights that a wife would. However, in America, sexual assault of slaves was common.
and to stone people to death
You are making a moral judgement, and require a moral law to do so. If you have no objective morality, and morality is decided by you and I, you can not remain consistant with that philosophy, and condemn acts on a moral basis.
Ravi Zacharias explains it a bit better here....
YouTube - Dr. Ravi Zacharias Question and Answer - Moral Law and Giver <--- click
, but homo-/bi-sexuality isn't ok???
This stems from the Marriage Covenent being sacred. Any time you violate it, you are acting.. "
sacrilegiously" If the Marriage Covenent is defined as male/female then anything other than that would be a violation, and as a result sacrilegious. For the same reason lust (gay and straight) is sinful. It is commity adultery in the heart. Adultery is a violate of the Marriage Covenent.
If morality is in the eye of the beholder, what does it matter?
Here is a quote I like from a guy I met on youtube, and I agree with his view on the bible:
"It's a book from lots of sources. Some bits are inspired and other are prejudiced. Some bits are accurate history and other bits are myth or deliberate exaggeration or made up. Some bits were written down hundreds of years after the events they describe so can't help being inaccurate. You have to use your own judgment. It's interesting in the same way that the books of the Romans or Egyptians or Babylonians are interesting - but I wouldn't use any of them to tell me how to live."
A claim without substance is a baseless claim.
