Actually, God's future foreknowledge is what gives Him the ability to not change His mind of the choice He was already going to make based upon His Almighty divine plan thru out all of time. However, if you believe that God lives in the present and can be influenced to change His mind in the heat of the moment like a human being can based on the situation or circumstance alone, then you are in contradiction of Scripture.
For
Malachi 3:6 declares,
“I the LORD do not change. So you, O descendants of Jacob, are not destroyed.” Similarly,
James 1:17 tells us,
“Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows.” The meaning of
Numbers 23:19 could not be more clear:
“God is not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man, that He should change His mind. Does He speak and then not act? Does He promise and not fulfill?” No, God does not change His mind. These verses assert that God is unchanging and unchangeable.
For the narrative in Exodus chapter 32 is not a case of a mere man changing the mind of God because Moses doesn’t tell or give God any new information in this passage that the Lord didn't already know. Instead, Moses remembers the promises that God had already made in the past.
Exodus 32:11 “You have brought out from the land of Egypt… with a mighty hand” is an allusion to
Exodus 15:6 “Your right hand… shatters the enemy”. Moses recalls the reason why God rescued the Jews from Egypt in the first place (
Exodus 32:12), and he repeats the promises that God had already made, regarding the Abrahamic covenant (
Exodus 32:13; c.f.
Genesis 12:1-3). In other words, Moses wasn’t telling God anything new. Therefore, the focus of this passage is not the unknown future; but it is the known past.
For God doesn’t change. God’s attitude toward sin has always been wrath and anger; and God's attitude toward true repentance has always been love and mercy. Because the circumstances changed (i.e. Moses’ prayer of intercession/repentance), God appeared to change from Moses’ point of view. This is a case of anthropomorphic language. Think about it like this. From our perspective, the sun appears to rise and set. However, this is man-centered language. The sun doesn’t actually set into the ground or orbit us; the Earth and it's inhabitants are the ones who actually move around the sun. But yet we use a language that suggests that sun has changed. The same is true with God. From Moses’ perspective, God changed. If the story had been written from the perspective of God’s divine counsel, it would have stated that the people changed. However, because it was written from the perspective of Israel’s history, it states that God changed.
Also, God appearing to not know something on the surface does not mean that He doesn't actually know either. For example, in
Genesis 3:9, after Adam's sin, God calls to Adam and asks
"Where are you?"
Now, are we to say that God did not know where Adam was in the garden? Of course not. God makes statements often designed to reveal to
us a truth that needs to be presented. In fact, God often asks questions He already knows the answer to. In Adam's case, the "
where" is dealing with a spiritual condition, and not a physical location.
For God is not some aloof sky-god who merely dictates. Instead, he relates. By asking questions, by appearing to change His mind, by claiming to have found something, He relates and allows man to play an active, and not a passive role in His personal relationship with him.
Besides, God telling Moses what He was going to do to Israel does not effect God's future foreknowledge and make God out to be a liar either because it was not an unmovable future decree. For the Scriptures say…
Exodus 32:10 -
"Now therefore let me alone, that my wrath MAY wax hot against them, and that I MAY consume them: and I will make of thee a great nation."
To put it to you another way, the words "
may" here suggest something God "
may" do. It was not a permanent decree written in stone as a future promise. For the Lord was simply testing Moses here just as God had tested Abraham with Isaac.
For God was letting Moses act as intercessor on Israel's behalf to protect them just as Jesus Christ acts as intercessor on our behalf. For that was the whole point of the scenario. God was testing Moses just as God was going to go thru the test Himself thru the flesh of a man to pay the price for our sins.
As you know, the words of God in
Genesis 22:12 are spoken after Abraham was about to sacrifice his Son Isaac on the altar. Abraham had raised the knife by which he would slay Isaac and that is when God tells Abraham to stop. God says,
" ...for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld your son, your only son, from Me."
However, does this mean that God did not know for sure what Abraham would do until He saw the raised knife? Does it also mean that God did not know whether or not Abraham feared Him as the verse states? But, the Open theist is presented with a problem because in Openness, God knows all the present completely and totally. If God knows all present things exhaustively, then did God not know the state of Abraham's heart regarding Abraham's reverent fear for God? How could He not?
1 Chronicles 28:9 says,
"...for the Lord searches all hearts, and understands every intent of the thoughts..." Since God knows even the intent of the heart, then He knows what the intent of Abraham's heart was during the three day journey to the place of sacrifice as well as whether or not Abraham feared Him. Again, He would have known that Abraham feared Him and the test was unnecessary to establish this fact.
Yet we know that...
God tries men to find out what is in their heart
"Do not lay a hand on the boy," he said. "Do not do anything to him. For now I know that you fear God." ~ (
Genesis 22:12)
"Remember how the LORD your God lead you all the way in the desert these forty years, to humble you and test you in order to know what was in your hearts." ~ (
Deuteronomy 8:2)
"The LORD your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul." ~ (
Deuteronomy 13:3)
Now, could it be that these three instances simply serve to reveal and verify to man that which is already known by God? For anyone who has ever had a college chemistry course can probably relate to the following. A chemistry professor comes into class, and says,
"I will now add acetic acid to this compound to see what happens."
The professor already knows what will happen! After the experiment, he might even add,
"I now know that such and such results will occur after adding the acid."
In other words, the chemistry professor is simply putting himself in the place of the class, and speaking for them. This is a similar thing that happened between God and Abraham. For Abraham now knew that God knew his heart. And he also knew God's knowledge was true in light of the 'test' that he just went through.
In fact, many critics have perceived ignorance on the part of God because of a belief that an Omniscient God ought to dictate. However, why can't an Omniscient God refrain from dictating, and simply relate in a way which intimately involves humanity?
Anyways, I hope this helps, my friends.
And may the Lord our God bless you all greatly today.
Please be well.
With loving kindness to you in Christ:
Sincerely,
~Jason.
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