Disputed Passages

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First John 5:7 Father, Son and Holy Spirit added because someone may have argued that the following 'water, blood and Spirit" are its or things and Spirit is not a person. First John requires belief in Father and Son, Jesus had a human body, the begotten of God does not sin. I have been told that Spirit is a neuter noun so the only scripture for personhood is Jesus calling the Holy Spirit a "He' in John 16. Using that proof text, all Spirit references are He's. Paul's epistles always open with God the Father and Jesus Christ the Lord. The Spirit is the mind of God given to Jesus. According to 1 Corinthians 2, believers are given the mind of Christ.

Elohim requires three or more. Father, Son and Holy Spirit are 3. This is evidence for Trinity Echad (united one) can be no more than two. Paul and John do not teach the Spirit to be a separate person except in John 16. My opinion is the text for John 16 may have been tampered with since Spirit carries the neuter definite article (The 'the' for 'the Spirit' is for a neuter (a thing not a person) noun.)

Set me straight Old Hermit.
 
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Magenta said:
It probably counts as a negative reaction. I'm pretty sure that even the zzz counts as a negative :(
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I then got worried because I gave the "surprised" reaction earlier and wondered if it registered negative, so I tried it out on joes post. It doesn't give any negativity but it doesn't have any effect either, so not the greatest one to use...
joefizz said:
It can "reach" that many"miles" away??????
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Fear the broom young man, fear it.
 
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Stunnedbygrace said:
Are you sure you're spelling it right? I thought dyadic referred to something with computers...
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Yes, it is spelled correctly. My colleague, Dr. Strawn, defines this idea in this way, “Dyadic reasoning is a reflexive nominal movement that has only two points of valence (as opposed to tryidic). It begins on the temporal side and comes to bear upon something else on the temporal side.”
 
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Stunnedbygrace said:
wow...I did two separate posts and they both mushed into one...odd.
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You must have hit "Reply" on each one before answering either? It acts like a multi-quote ;)

With apologies to Old Hermit :giggle: Nice to see you posting again, OH! :):):)
 
Stunnedbygrace said:
I then got worried because I gave the "surprised" reaction earlier and wondered if it registered negative, so I tried it out on joes post. It doesn't give any negativity but it doesn't have any effect either, so not the greatest one to use...



Fear the broom young man, fear it.
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I didn't know you had a "giant mustache"!?(broom)o_O
 
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Stunnedbygrace said:
Well that's nice if that's the way to multiquote now because I never did figure out how to do it the old way, except to do a lot of deleting!
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You can also do multiquote by selecting text with your mouse. Once it's highlighted you should see a Reply thingy at the end of the text. You can do that over and over.
 
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oldhermit said:
I think that of all the disputed texts, the longer ending of Mark 16 has better evidence than most. The majority of ancient manuscripts do contain the longer ending.
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My question is....how can you take any verse or chapter of the Bible and check for its existence in ancient manuscripts. Do we have 1st century manuscripts?
 
I dispute "my own texts" on here because "sometimes" I say "random" stuff.
 
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