I do not find it so important to be premil, amil or postmil. I just wish to be ready on that day.
But I do care when I see false prophets twisting Scripture to support their already held, man-made conception of eschatology. So, I offer the following on Matthew 24.
"And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of
the end of the world?" (Matt 24:3, KJV)
The phrase "the end of the world" is found 7 times in the KJV. In Ps 19:4 & Isa 62:11 it has the meaning of "the ends of the earth", not a future event. In Heb 9:26 it refers to the death of Christ on the cross. The phrase is used 4 times in Matthew and in 13:39, 49; 28:20 it is clearly the end of time. In Matt 24:3 the phrase is used but omitted in the Mark and Luke parallels. It seems safe to understand Matt 24:3 as meaning the end of time also. But, since the disciples often misunderstood the words of Jesus, what did the disciples think? Did they identify the destruction of the temple complex with the end of time, as the phrase is used elsewhere in Matthew? The timing and destruction of the temple is in all 3 synoptic gospels and "the end of the world" in only Matthew. It appears the emphasis is on the temple destruction and timing, not on "the end of the world", which timing is unknown.
"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." (Matt 24:14, KJV)
This sign was completed in the time of the Apostle Paul, Col. 1:23 & Rom. 1:8.
It is clear language!
"Verily I say unto you,
This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled." (Matt 24:34, KJV)
The phrase "this generation" is used in 18 other verses and in every one it means the present generation, those being spoken to. It is absurd to make this one time in Mt. 24:34 mean a generation 2000 years in the future. The phrase referring to a generation distant is, "that generation" and that phrase is found in 3 verses: Ex. 1:6; Judg 2:10 & Heb 3:10. To make Mt. 24:34 mean a generation far distant in time is to ignore the plain grammar and context.
What about that language in Matt 24:29-31? Is it to be taken as literal? The phrasing is similar to the apocalyptic language of the OT where it depicts great judgments:
God in the clouds: Isa 19:1; Nah 1:3; Psa 104:3
Sky, sun, moon, stars: Isa 13:1, 10, 19, 20; 34:4, 5; Eze 32:2, 7, 8
Hail, fire, brimestone: Ex 9:18; Psa 18:12 13; Isa 28:1, 2
Earthquakes, heaven: 2 Sam 22:1, 7-16
Smoke forever: Isa 34:5, 10
Water into blood: Ex 4:9; 7:17
Darkness: E 10:21; Deut. 4:11
If one still wishes to be more literal, read the account of the destruction of Jerusalem in great detail:
http://www.josephus.org/warChronologyIntro.htm
http://www.josephus.org/causeofDestruct.htm#omens
I know from Scripture what Jesus meant by "this generation" in Matt. 24:34, the destruction of the temple. But what about the disciple's question about "the end of the world"?
"
But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one shall be taken, and the other left." (Matt 24:36-41, KJV)
