Okay. Sorry.![]()
No apology necessary. If I provide an answer, it'll probably be disagreed with, so it's best to ask whoever is advocating for it to explain what it means.
Okay. Sorry.![]()
I am not saying that the present tense only ever describes a present moment of time. I am saying that the present is very rarely gnomic in kojne Greek. If a text can be understood with the present progressive sense in it's context, that is the most likely sense of the present in the text. If I say "Water is liquid," that would be gnomic. If during an experiment when I am freezing and boiling water, I say, "The water is solid," the continuous present is meant. Likewise, "The water is vapour." and "The water is liquid".Your example are equally as absurd because scripture often uses present to describe objective existence of a thing or person. When scripture says "God is love", according to you that means God WAS love only at the moment the writer spoke or penned those words.
Or when God revealed his Name to Moses by saying "I AM", we're supposed to understand God came into existence only at that moment, and then went out of existence in the next?
Or when Jesus said, "I am the Way, the Life and the Truth", he meant only at that moment he said that?
In Romans 3 Paul is also telling his readers why the people spoken of in the first two chapters responded to Natural and Intuitive Revelation the way they have throughout history. One of the reasons is that there IS "no one righteous, no not one". But that has always been the case. There is no man inherently righteous in God's sight! Paul said, all men are under sin." "All have sinned and fall short of the Glory of God" (Rom 3:23) and this is why there IS no one righteous!
So, once again we move way from specific Scripture(s) in order to favor long narratives with a few unanalyzed proof texts.
Wouldn't it be more productive to just analyze the Scriptures that purportedly prove the theory of Total Depravity? Can "T" not stand on it's own so it needs "U" or other letters to prop it up? I thought "T" was firmly foundational and the rest of the letters were based upon it. I guess not.
Based upon the Total Inability graphic supplied by @maxamir, here are the Scriptures provided as purported proof of the theory. Which of these Scriptures in context prove that unregenerate man is incapable of understanding any spiritual information about God? Other than the discussions so far with @Rufus re: Rom1-3, I haven't even looked at any of them in any detail with a view for or against the theory. Please, anyone, make your case.
Rom8:5-8
Eph2:3
Rom14:23
1Cor2:14
John14:17
Jer17:9
Titus3:3
Rom7:14
1Cor1:18
John3:3
John8:43
2Cor4:4
Eph2:1
Rom3:9-12
I am not saying that the present tense only ever describes a present moment of time. I am saying that the present is very rarely gnomic in kojne Greek. If a text can be understood with the present progressive sense in it's context, that is the most likely sense of the present in the text. If I say "Water is liquid," that would be gnomic. If during an experiment when I am freezing and boiling water, I say, "The water is solid," the continuous present is meant. Likewise, "The water is vapour." and "The water is liquid".
In scripture you are forcing a gnomic sense onto the present tense when it makes perfect sense as the present progressive, and you are denying the validity of inferring the primary sense of the present tense, because to admit it could have a progressive present sense would disarm your alleged proof text as a weapon to impose calvinism on the Bible.
So glad you have a collection of charts and what not to keep yourself in line
very boring to peole who actually know better tho![]()
yeah I'm just gonna respond to this one sentence here
you are not being truthful. also the mark of a Calvinist who cannot respond to scripture
I am not at all deceived since I do not think that God does not know all things
quite making up things other people are supposed to have said and you cannot read minds either
get a life
So, once again we move way from specific Scripture(s) in order to favor long narratives with a few unanalyzed proof texts.
Wouldn't it be more productive to just analyze the Scriptures that purportedly prove the theory of Total Depravity? Can "T" not stand on it's own so it needs "U" or other letters to prop it up? I thought "T" was firmly foundational and the rest of the letters were based upon it. I guess not.
Based upon the Total Inability graphic supplied by @maxamir, here are the Scriptures provided as purported proof of the theory. Which of these Scriptures in context prove that unregenerate man is incapable of understanding any spiritual information about God? Other than the discussions so far with @Rufus re: Rom1-3, I haven't even looked at any of them in any detail with a view for or against the theory. Please, anyone, make your case.
Rom8:5-8
Eph2:3
Rom14:23
1Cor2:14
John14:17
Jer17:9
Titus3:3
Rom7:14
1Cor1:18
John3:3
John8:43
2Cor4:4
Eph2:1
Rom3:9-12

Kinda difficult to do since we cannot come to agreement on just who the people are in Rom 3:10-18. You say they are just Jews, even though this passage has as its bookends vv. 9 and 23. And is it only Jews who are inherently unrighteous (v.12)? Or only the Jews alone who do no good (v.12)? And because you limit the scope to Jews, we cannot agree on what the nature of the passage is. I see it as a universal indictment of all TU, whereas you do not.
Furthermore, you keep raising the straw man argument that all reformed people,, apparently, believe the texts you cite above prove that all TUs have no spiritual understanding. And this clearly is NOT MY position. So...maybe you would want to take that issue up with someone who buys into your premise.
Lastly, the cite list above is woefully incomplete in terms of establishing biblical validity for the TD doctrine. It barely scratches the surface. So, it looks like we'd be doing battle for months...if not longer, if we were to go that route! Doing a rough count of a TD topical study I performed many moons ago, I come up with at least 90 passages. And that many passages speaks volumes about the tenor or scripture on the subject
Therefore, I like my idea better. You appealed to OT saints as your "proof" that TD can't be biblically justified. So, I'll take you up on that and meet you on your own turf. And in so doing, even, if it takes a two or three posts, it will still cut to the chase, relatively speaking, because I'm confident you will have no rebuttal of substance to offer. It would go faster than trying to "analyze" 90+ TD passages.
But meanwhile, while I'm preparing my Exodus argument, you could tackle the Conscience question I presented to you earlier in the week. You might recall that you appealed to man's conscience as being his ultimate (?) moral/spiritual compass, even though this faculty is as corrupt as the others. You essentially said it was the conscience that CAUSED [inherently evil] men to strive to do good, which would make evil man's conscience his good superhero. So, I followed up with a conscience question to you: I asked that since God cannot sin and man cannot not sin, do you also a attribute the conscience as being the reason why God cannot sin, cannot lie, cannot deny himself? Is God's conscience also the cause of his infinite goodness, holiness and righteousness? The root question to this problem: Why does God have the inability to sin, and man the inability to not sin? Is it conscience in both cases?
Also,. you never addressed my reply in 5738 to your short, dismissive reply to my observation that TU hate God. You implied in your post that I was reading too much into Jesus' words, so I appealed to several OT passages and the Greatest Commandment to show you that Jesus knew of what he spoke.
Why do all these signs of insanity keep popping up?![]()
Ah so... No wonder the only message I've been able to pick up from them is, "KEEP OUT."Clever play on words! They're detour signs to keep us off of Scripture Discussion Road.
Ah so... No wonder the only message I've been able to pick up from them is, "KEEP OUT."
No, it does not make perfect sense, especially since I have given you several examples from the NT where it would not. Paul was clearly speaking aphoristically --making a concise statement of principle. For example, when Jesus told the Jews you are evil, he was stating a principle. He wasn't saying well...sometimes you're evil, and other times not so much. He was stating that there was a principle of evil within them. He was making a statement about their ESSENCE which never changes! This is why later on in the same epistle he wrote about the "law of sin" and "law of death" (Rom 7:23, 25; 8:2). Clearly, he was talking about the PRINCIPLE of sin and death.
Kinda difficult to do since we cannot come to agreement on just who the people are in Rom 3:10-18. You say they are just Jews, even though this passage has as its bookends vv. 9 and 23. And is it only Jews who are inherently unrighteous (v.12)? Or only the Jews alone who do no good (v.12)?
Man's depravity (corruptness) is total in the quantitative sense; for man is not as [qualitatively] corrupt as he could be; nonetheless all his faculties (mind, passions, conscience and will) , which are seated in his heart, have been corrupted. Because of this corruptness or depravity or indwelling sin, if you will, Jesus declared that men are [inherently] evil (in their essence) and that only God alone is [inherently] good (in his essence).
So, herein is man's incurable problem stated in biblical principles:
"A little leaven (depravity, corruptness, sin, evil) leavens the entire loaf" (Gal 5:9)
-or-
"Does a fountain send out from the same opening both fresh and bitter water?" (Jas 3:11). Can salt water produce fresh?
the only people who find such things to be boring are those who are not yet regenerated.
1Co 2:14 But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
2Co 13:5 Examine yourselves as to whether you are in the faith. Test yourselves. Do you not know yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you?—unless indeed you are disqualified.
the only people who find such things to be boring are those who are not yet regenerated.
1Co 2:14 But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
2Co 13:5 Examine yourselves as to whether you are in the faith. Test yourselves. Do you not know yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you?—unless indeed you are disqualified.
you might agree that God knows all things but does God decree all things that come to pass as I stated or are you are Deist who somehow thinks that God lets the cards fall as they may according to the will of man?
Please tell me, do you ever pray for people to be saved and if you do, why do you do so if according to you, God can not intervene over the sovereign will of man?
As far as sarcasm goes, scripture is loaded with it-- in case you haven't noticed.
Thanks.
So, in spite of man not being totally corrupted qualitatively, man is unable to understand anything spiritual?
How does man understand NR and know God (to the degree NR reveals God in unregenerate men? Are God's eternal power and divinity not spiritual truths?
Yes, man is unable because he's not spiritually capable of arriving at substantial and essential understanding of spiritual truth;
for either God has blinded men's eyes and deadened their hearts (Jn 12:40)
or the devil has blinded the minds of unbelievers (2Cor 4:40)