Mark 12:18-27 King James Version
18 Then come unto him the Sadducees, which say there is no resurrection; and they asked him, saying,
19 Master, Moses wrote unto us, If a man's brother die, and leave his wife behind him, and leave no children, that his brother should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
20 Now there were seven brethren: and the first took a wife, and dying left no seed.
21 And the second took her, and died, neither left he any seed: and the third likewise.
22 And the seven had her, and left no seed: last of all the woman died also.
23 In the resurrection therefore, when they shall rise, whose wife shall she be of them? for the seven had her to wife.
24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?
25 For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.
26 And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?
27 He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living: ye therefore do greatly err.
23 In the resurrection therefore, when they shall rise, whose wife shall she be of them? for the seven had her to wife.
24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?
25 For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.
So I know the common doctrine is that this teaches that in the resurrected state there is no longer any marriage. I'm just wondering if this is a misreading? If Jesus is talking about people being as the angels in heaven only when they rise then this leaves open the possibility for there being marriage in the future (and even in heaven I suppose). I'm not saying this is what these verses are saying but I can certainly read them this way and I was hoping for input from others as I know the common doctrine on this issue is that there will be no marriage in the future. Excuse my poor writing but what allows for this is that Jesus could have been letting the Sadducees know that they didn't know the scriptures since they misused them here and that there would be no opportunity for the woman to remarry at the resurrection since she was the last brother's wife. It's a delicate reading, but I have no trouble reading it this way, I just don't know if it's the truth. Luke is relatively easy to read this way and Matthew can be read this way too, but it helps to keep in mind that here in Mark it says that they are talking about when people rise, not the entire "resurrection".
Luke 20:32-36 King James Version
32 Last of all the woman died also.
33 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife of them is she? for seven had her to wife.
34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:
35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:
36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
Verse 35 seems to be saying that those who take part in the resurrection will not be able to marry, but it can still be read as not saying this if Jesus was stressing "and the resurrection from the dead". It depends on how Jesus said it.
Matthew 22:28-30 King James Version
28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
Again, Jesus might have been letting the Sadducees know that they erred since they didn't know the scriptures they were using (if you read the scriptures they use they use them differently than how they were written), and might have been saying in the resurrection there would be no opportunity for the woman to remarry since she would still be the last brother's wife along with saying that in the resurrection (when they rise) people are like the angels of God in heaven, not marrying each other, but being raised from the dead.
Again, I'm not trying to make a doctrine or anything, I'm just wondering if the common doctrine is in error in light of what I wrote, since this can be read another way. Basically, I'm just looking for information or discussion and not trying to put forth anything as the truth.
18 Then come unto him the Sadducees, which say there is no resurrection; and they asked him, saying,
19 Master, Moses wrote unto us, If a man's brother die, and leave his wife behind him, and leave no children, that his brother should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
20 Now there were seven brethren: and the first took a wife, and dying left no seed.
21 And the second took her, and died, neither left he any seed: and the third likewise.
22 And the seven had her, and left no seed: last of all the woman died also.
23 In the resurrection therefore, when they shall rise, whose wife shall she be of them? for the seven had her to wife.
24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?
25 For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.
26 And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?
27 He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living: ye therefore do greatly err.
23 In the resurrection therefore, when they shall rise, whose wife shall she be of them? for the seven had her to wife.
24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?
25 For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.
So I know the common doctrine is that this teaches that in the resurrected state there is no longer any marriage. I'm just wondering if this is a misreading? If Jesus is talking about people being as the angels in heaven only when they rise then this leaves open the possibility for there being marriage in the future (and even in heaven I suppose). I'm not saying this is what these verses are saying but I can certainly read them this way and I was hoping for input from others as I know the common doctrine on this issue is that there will be no marriage in the future. Excuse my poor writing but what allows for this is that Jesus could have been letting the Sadducees know that they didn't know the scriptures since they misused them here and that there would be no opportunity for the woman to remarry at the resurrection since she was the last brother's wife. It's a delicate reading, but I have no trouble reading it this way, I just don't know if it's the truth. Luke is relatively easy to read this way and Matthew can be read this way too, but it helps to keep in mind that here in Mark it says that they are talking about when people rise, not the entire "resurrection".
Luke 20:32-36 King James Version
32 Last of all the woman died also.
33 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife of them is she? for seven had her to wife.
34 And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage:
35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:
36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
Verse 35 seems to be saying that those who take part in the resurrection will not be able to marry, but it can still be read as not saying this if Jesus was stressing "and the resurrection from the dead". It depends on how Jesus said it.
Matthew 22:28-30 King James Version
28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
Again, Jesus might have been letting the Sadducees know that they erred since they didn't know the scriptures they were using (if you read the scriptures they use they use them differently than how they were written), and might have been saying in the resurrection there would be no opportunity for the woman to remarry since she would still be the last brother's wife along with saying that in the resurrection (when they rise) people are like the angels of God in heaven, not marrying each other, but being raised from the dead.
Again, I'm not trying to make a doctrine or anything, I'm just wondering if the common doctrine is in error in light of what I wrote, since this can be read another way. Basically, I'm just looking for information or discussion and not trying to put forth anything as the truth.
