K
kennethcadwell
Guest
Romans 3:23 or 10-17 does not disqualify Mary from being "Full of Grace". And it still does not answer the question. Who or what time period after the reformation did "Bible-Christians" invent the "Mary is a sinner" theory? Or has all of Christendom been wrong until such time? I already gave the answer. It's a man made insult to Our Lord's mother, not because it's true, but because out of the long list of anti-Catholic falsehoods, that one is particularly offensive to Catholics, including Jesus Himself. It's spiritual sadism. My point is this: how can any Christian who accepts notions pulled out of thin air 300 years ago declare anyone else to be in heresy?
Mary was a sinner, no human is perfect and all fall short do to sin.
Jesus our Lord in the flesh is the only one without sin.