In reviewing your post last night, I noticed that you mainly included boilerplate verses, related remarks, and restated the actual verses, but you did not offer detailed analysis or discuss your interpretation as to what the verses mean, as was expected of this exercise. As a result, your point of view was withheld, and since you chose to do so, I’m uncertain as to how you might interpret them. If you choose to accept them as written, I would fully concur with that interpretation. But by that, you deny people the capacity to achieve or influence their own salvation. So, which is it? Based upon those verses, from your perspective, do you think it is within man’s prerogative to cause his own salvation or can he not? Do these verses stand alone, or are there other relevant verses that will alter their meaning that should be factored in? Those are the key questions that you left unanswered. Please provide justification to any conclusions you might posit.
Therefore, while my understanding of those verses is that they are self-evident, needing nothing beyond what they state, I will reserve posting my full, detailed analysis until after you’ve posted yours since you started this off, so that I can respond to it.
Unfortunately, I had a typo and meant to cite 1 Tim. 2:3-4 in the last paragraph, which indicates that God wants everyone to be saved,
but since no Scripture teaches that everyone is saved, we must conclude that God's grace (Eph. 2:8-9) is resistible. Thus, the answer to your question is that it is within man's MFW to accept God's grace or not (Tit. 2:11, 2Pet. 3:9). Accepting the gift through faith is not causing or earning the gift, but merely the non-meritorious condition for receiving the gift (Eph. 2:8-9). No verses stand alone, but all Scripture/GW should be factored in, whether they alter that meaning or confirm it (Matt. 4:6-7).
I did not want to hog the discussion, so I offered you the opportunity to discuss the context for the meaning of grace per Romans 3:21-5:11, but I see you declined, so I will start from the beginning of Romans.
1. Romans 1:16 says the Gospel reveals that grace or salvation/election (s/e) is for “everyone who believes”, both Jew and Gentile.
2. Romans 1:17 describes s/e as “righteousness from God” that is by faith “from first to last” or from creation until the end.
3. Romans 2:4 teaches that God’s kindness or patience with sinners is meant to lead them toward repentance, which implies that sinners are able to repent because of God’s leading.
4. Romans 2:5 warns that those who do not repent but instead stubbornly resist God’s leading are storing up wrath against themselves for the day when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed, which implies that God enables sinners to repent–or not (cf. Deut. 30:19).
5. Romans 2:6 affirms what is called karma by saying that “God will give to each person according to what he has done”, which (in Gal. 6:7-9) is called reaping what a person sows.
6. Romans 2:7 speaks of the need for “persistence in doing good” and seeking glory, honor and immortality in order to receive s/e or eternal life, which echoes what Jesus commanded (in Matt. 7:7) and connects with the doctrine of perseverance (cf. Heb. 10:36 & Jam. 1:3-4).
7. Romans 2:11 teaches that “God does not show favoritism” (cf. Eph. 6:9, Col. 3:25, 1Pet. 1:17), which is how God judges people justly, so the fact that some sinners ignore God’s Gospel indicates that His will or leading is resistible because of MFW.
8. Romans 2:15 teaches that sinful souls have a conscience or awareness of “the requirements of the law”, which may be combined with Romans 1:20 to teach that God’s power and moral nature or will may be perceived via creation and conscience (called natural revelation), thus those unfamiliar with God’s Word in Scripture have no good reason for resisting divine leading and choosing atheism/evil.
Do you want to say something or should I continue?