I never used the phrase. Why would I need to defend something I haven't claimed?
Can We Really Exercise Free Will?
- Thread starter LifelongLearner
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In the setting of Salvation, would the Preacher represent the bank employee?
One more time. DEEDS.
I will not steal and that makes me saved. I will not swear and that makes me saved. I will give to the poor and that makes me saved. I will quit SINNING and that makes me saved......You're still on the teat, so I would not expect you to understand.
Well... young boy.
Learn this!
It was exactly like I explained it to be.
And if I drive out demons by Beelzebul,
by whom do your people drive them out?
Matthew 12:27
Point was?
They COULD NOT!
Meaning what?
By virtue of their claim to be the ones from God?
And, Jesus not?
Made God is weaker than the demonic power!
For they were claiming that Jesus superior ability was demonic!
By whom do your people drive them out?
They could not drive out demons!
Their claim that Jesus used demonic power was making the demonic to be superior to the Holy Spirit!!!!! Blaspheme!
So?
How long can you play stupid and try to divert away from what was just clarified?
yes it does. you not liking the answer does not mean the question was not answered.
If a person rejects the Lord Jesus Christ ... there is no reconciliation with God.Cameron143 said:
God reconciled the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them (2 Cor 5:19) ... the world is the whole world ... all descendants of Adam ... not some subset of humanity based upon a faulty definition of the word kosmos.
again ... the word "reconciled" is translated from the Greek word katallássō which means decisively change, as when two parties reconcile when coming ("changing") to the same position.
Because God never changes (Mal 3:6), it must be man that changes.
Those who do not suppress the truth in unrighteousness when the truth of God's Word is preached are the ones who change (repent) and become reconciled to God.
The person who rejects the Lord Jesus Christ will be cast into the lake of fire ... not because of sin, but because of the rejection of the only way in which mankind is to be be reconciled ... the reconciliation according to God's eternal purpose in eternity past ... God reconciled Himself to mankind through the death of His Son.
You can deny all you want but the truth of the matter is, those who are cast into the lake of fire are not cast in because of sin, but because of an obstinate rebellion in suppressing the truth when truth came a-knocking ... and God reaches out to all persons during the course of a person's life on this earth. Salvation has always been by grace through faith (and I know you know this).
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rolleyes ... you should flush your foolish questions down the sewer before you click on "Post reply".
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God didn't reconcile the world to Himself. If He had, no one would still be in rebellion against Him. What He has done is make a way for man to be reconciled to Him in Christ. Those not in Christ are not reconciled.
And people are condemned because of their sins. If that wasn't the case, why does Jesus save His people from their sins? What need do they have of being saved from sins if their sins don't condemn them?
Also, where does the scripture say that God reaches out to every person at some time in their lives? What does this mean? He does so through creation and conscience? He does so on a personal level?
He came to take the punishment of our sin. He did not declare anyone innocent.
And so was foreknowledge which came before election.
Strewth. The lengths you go to.
2 Corinthians 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
obviously an inaccurate statement.Cameron143 said:
yep.Cameron143 said:
nope.Cameron143 said:
the never-ending slew of questions due to unbelief ...Cameron143 said:
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Nothing like doubling down on ones insecurities by trying to justify oneself.
Hopefully one day he might be more concerned with the message than his own position.
That's just another sin you say is paid for. No biggie. Sins don't lead to condemnation.
No Cameron. Sin is derived from evil desires, desires that reject the truth of God. Adam's desire was to eat the forbidden fruit, his sin was to eat it.
James 1:15
Then, when desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and sin, when it is full-grown, brings forth death.
Once you have learned the difference, you will understand how Christ can pay for everyone's sin yet not have everyone saved. Christ died for our sin, not for our salvation. His death paved the way for salvation, without it salvation would not be possible.
We have both a sin debt that needed to be paid and also a perfect righteousness owed in the place of our sin. That's why Jesus' perfect life is necessary for us also. In salvation, both His substitutionary death and perfect righteousness are credited to us. But Jesus didn't die for the sins of everyone.
Matthew 1:21...He shall save His people from their sins.
Matthew 20:28...to give His life a ransom for many.
Matthew 26:28...my blood...which is shed for many for the remission of sins.
Hebrews 9:28...so Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many...
Jesus saves His people from their sins. This implies that there are those who are not His people who He does not save from their sins. Further, His life wasn't given as a ransom for all; only many. Additionally, His blood was only shed for many, and not all. Lastly, on the cross, Jesus only bore the sins of many, and not all.
Conclusion: if Jesus paid the sins of every single person, these verses would say all. The Hebrews verse is particularly important because it doesn't say He bore in His body every sin for every person, but only bore in His body the sins of many. There is no universal payment for sin.